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Question 1

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

Approximately what percentage of middle-aged tennis players are able to return to tennis after rotator cuff surgery:

. 20%
. 40%
. 60%
. 80%
. 100%

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 80%


Explanation

In a series evaluating the results of surgical treatment of rotator cuff tears in 51 middle-aged tennis players, Sonnery-C ottet and colleagues discovered that approximately 80% of patients returned to tennis at latest follow-up.

Question 2

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

Internal snapping hip syndrome is typically caused by the snapping of which structure over the iliopectineal eminence or the femoral head?

. Iliotibial band
. Gluteus maximus tendon
. Iliopsoas tendon
. Rectus femoris tendon
. Sartorius muscle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Iliopsoas tendon


Explanation

Internal snapping hip (coxa saltans interna) occurs when the iliopsoas tendon snaps over the iliopectineal eminence or the anterior femoral head. This typically happens as the hip extends from a flexed, abducted, and externally rotated position.

Question 3

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A soccer player presents with chronic groin pain exacerbated by kicking and cutting. An MRI demonstrates a "cleft sign." This represents an injury to the aponeurosis of which two structures?

. Rectus abdominis and adductor longus
. External oblique and pectineus
. Internal oblique and adductor brevis
. Transversalis fascia and gracilis
. Rectus femoris and iliopsoas

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Rectus abdominis and adductor longus


Explanation

Core muscle injuries (athletic pubalgia) often involve the confluent aponeurosis of the rectus abdominis and the adductor longus at the pubic symphysis. The "cleft sign" on MRI indicates a tear or detachment in this common aponeurosis.

Question 4

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

How does an Anterior Labroligamentous Periosteal Sleeve Avulsion (ALPSA) lesion differ from a classic Bankart lesion in anterior shoulder instability?

. ALPSA involves an intact anterior periosteum that is stripped and medially displaced.
. ALPSA includes a bony avulsion of the anterior glenoid rim.
. ALPSA involves an isolated tear of the middle glenohumeral ligament.
. ALPSA is characterized by a posterior labral detachment.
. ALPSA includes a tear of the subscapularis tendon.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. ALPSA involves an intact anterior periosteum that is stripped and medially displaced.


Explanation

In an ALPSA lesion, the anterior labrum is avulsed but the anterior scapular periosteum remains intact. This allows the labrum to heal in a medially displaced, nonfunctional position, often requiring surgical mobilization prior to repair.

Question 5

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 24-year-old hockey player presents with deep anterior groin pain exacerbated by hip flexion and internal rotation. Imaging reveals an aspherical femoral head-neck junction with an alpha angle of 65 degrees. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Pincer-type femoroacetabular impingement
. Cam-type femoroacetabular impingement
. Athletic pubalgia
. Iliopsoas snapping hip syndrome
. Acetabular labral tear secondary to dysplasia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cam-type femoroacetabular impingement


Explanation

Cam-type femoroacetabular impingement is characterized by a non-spherical femoral head or reduced head-neck offset, objectively measured by an alpha angle greater than 50-55 degrees. It frequently causes chondral delamination and labral injury during deep flexion.

Question 6

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher complains of posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. MRI demonstrates articular-sided partial tearing of the infraspinatus and posterosuperior labral fraying. What is the pathophysiologic mechanism?

. Compression of the long head of the biceps against the coracoacromial arch
. Impingement of the greater tuberosity against the posterosuperior glenoid
. Traction injury to the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch
. Subcoracoid impingement of the subscapularis tendon
. Microinstability leading to anterior labral tear and posterior capsular contracture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Impingement of the greater tuberosity against the posterosuperior glenoid


Explanation

Internal impingement occurs when the shoulder is in maximum abduction and external rotation (late cocking phase). The undersurface of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus tendons becomes pinched between the greater tuberosity and the posterosuperior glenoid rim.

Question 7

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old professional volleyball player presents with painless weakness in her dominant serving shoulder. Physical examination reveals isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus muscle and significant weakness during external rotation, but normal supraspinatus strength. At which anatomical location is the nerve most likely compressed?

. Quadrilateral space
. Suprascapular notch
. Spinoglenoid notch
. Spiral groove
. Triangular interval

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Spinoglenoid notch


Explanation

Compression of the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch denervates only the infraspinatus muscle, leading to isolated external rotation weakness. Compression at the suprascapular notch would affect both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus.

Question 8

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old baseball pitcher presents with posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. He is diagnosed with internal impingement. This condition is characterized by pathological contact between the posterosuperior glenoid labrum and which of the following structures?

. The acromioclavicular joint undersurface
. The subscapularis tendon
. The articular surface of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus tendons
. The long head of the biceps and the transverse humeral ligament
. The subacromial bursa

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The articular surface of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus tendons


Explanation

Internal impingement is a condition common in overhead athletes where the articular undersurface of the posterosuperior rotator cuff (supraspinatus/infraspinatus) abuts the posterosuperior glenoid labrum during maximum shoulder abduction and external rotation.

Question 9

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A collegiate baseball pitcher presents with glenohumeral internal rotation deficit (GIRD). By true definition, GIRD involves a symptomatic loss of internal rotation compared to the contralateral non-throwing shoulder of at least how many degrees?

. 5 degrees
. 10 degrees
. 20 degrees
. 35 degrees
. 45 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 20 degrees


Explanation

GIRD is clinically defined as a loss of internal rotation of 20 degrees or more compared to the contralateral non-throwing shoulder. It results from adaptive posterior capsular contracture and osseous retroversion from repetitive throwing.

Question 10

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

Which rotator cuff muscle is most commonly torn?

. Supraspinatus
. Infraspinatus
. Teres minor
. Subscapularis
. Deltoid

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Supraspinatus


Explanation

The supraspinatus tendon is the most commonly torn of the rotator cuff muscles, often due to its position in the subacromial space and its role in abduction.

Question 11

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

What is the most common cause of shoulder instability?

. Rotator cuff tear
. Traumatic anterior dislocation
. Biceps tendonitis
. Acromioclavicular joint separation
. Adhesive capsulitis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Traumatic anterior dislocation


Explanation

Traumatic anterior shoulder dislocation is the most common cause of glenohumeral instability, often leading to a Bankart lesion or Hill-Sachs lesion.

Question 12

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

Which of the following describes the function of the subacromial bursa?

. Connects the scapula to the humerus
. Stabilizes the glenohumeral joint
. Produces synovial fluid for joint lubrication
. Reduces friction between the rotator cuff and acromion
. Primary initiator of shoulder abduction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Reduces friction between the rotator cuff and acromion


Explanation

The subacromial bursa is a fluid-filled sac that acts as a cushion, reducing friction between the rotator cuff tendons (especially supraspinatus) and the overlying acromion during shoulder movement.

Question 13

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

To avoid injury associated with repetitive internal impingement, the pitchers long humeral axis must be in which position during the late cocking phase of throwing:

. 20° extended relative to the plane of the scapula
. 10° extended relative to the plane of the scapula
. Parallel to the plane of the scapula
. 10° flexed relative to the plane of the scapula
. 20° flexed relative to the plane of the scapula

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Parallel to the plane of the scapula


Explanation

Hyperangulation during the late cocking phase of throwing can result in impingement of the greater tuberosity on the posterosuperior glenoid rim leading to labral or rotator cuff lesions. Positioning of the humeral axis parallel to the plane of the scapula is recommended to avoid injury associated with internal impingement.

Question 14

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

Which of the following factors is related to recurrence after primary anterior shoulder dislocation:

. Type of sport practiced
. Treatment with immobilization
. Treatment with physical therapy
. Patient gender
. Patient age

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Patient age


Explanation

The only known factor that statistically correlates with recurrence of anterior shoulder instability is patient age at the time of initial dislocation. A recent study demonstrated that patients having an initial dislocation during the third decade have more than a 60% chance of redislocating. The type of sport practiced, type of nonoperative treatment, and patient gender do not influence recurrence rate.

Question 15

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

The stabilizing ligamentous pulley of the long head of the biceps at the shoulder is composed of fibers from all of the following structures except:

. Superior glenohumeral ligament
. Middle glenohumeral ligament
. Coracohumeral ligament
. Subscapularis tendon
. Supraspinatus tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Middle glenohumeral ligament


Explanation

The stabilizing ligamentous pulley system of the long head of the biceps at the shoulder is a coalescence of the coracohumeral ligament and superior glenohumeral ligament. It also receives fiber contributions from the supraspinatus and subscapularis tendons.

Question 16

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
When assessing patient outcomes after rotator cuff repair, which of the following is not related to poor functional outcome?
. Workman's compensation
. Revision rotator cuff repair
. Male gender
. Age older than 55 years at the time of repair
. Age younger than 55 years at the time of repair

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Male gender


Explanation

A large outcome study of more than 600 rotator cuff repairs demonstrated that workman's compensation, revision surgery, male gender, and age younger than 55 years at the time of repair are factors contributing to poor functional outcome and decreased workability following rotator cuff repair.

Question 17

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 19-year-old gymnast presents with bilateral shoulder pain and a sensation of instability. Examination shows a positive sulcus sign and positive apprehension in both anterior and posterior directions. What is the most appropriate initial management?

. Arthroscopic capsular plication
. Open inferior capsular shift
. Rotator cuff strengthening and periscapular stabilization program
. Thermal capsulorrhaphy
. Arthroscopic Bankart repair

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Rotator cuff strengthening and periscapular stabilization program


Explanation

The patient has multidirectional instability (MDI). The first-line treatment for MDI is a prolonged course of physical therapy focusing on periscapular and rotator cuff strengthening to provide dynamic stabilization.

Question 18

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old female runner complains of a painful clicking sensation deep in her anterior groin when extending her hip from a flexed position. Ultrasound confirms the diagnosis of internal snapping hip syndrome. Which anatomical structure is responsible for this snapping?

. Iliotibial band over the greater trochanter
. Gluteus maximus over the greater trochanter
. Iliopsoas tendon over the iliopectineal eminence
. Rectus femoris over the anterior inferior iliac spine
. Hamstring tendon over the ischial tuberosity

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Iliopsoas tendon over the iliopectineal eminence


Explanation

Internal snapping hip syndrome is caused by the iliopsoas tendon snapping over the iliopectineal eminence or the anterior femoral head. External snapping hip involves the IT band snapping over the greater trochanter.

Question 19

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 16-year-old gymnast presents with bilateral shoulder pain, a sensation of subluxation, a positive sulcus sign, and generalized ligamentous laxity. What should be the initial management for this condition?

. Arthroscopic capsular plication
. Open inferior capsular shift
. Physical therapy emphasizing periscapular strengthening
. Immobilization in external rotation for 6 weeks
. Thermal capsulorrhaphy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Physical therapy emphasizing periscapular strengthening


Explanation

This patient has multidirectional instability (MDI). The primary and initial treatment for MDI is a prolonged course of physical therapy focusing on rotator cuff and periscapular stabilizer strengthening.

Question 20

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A professional baseball pitcher complains of posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. MRI demonstrates articular-sided fraying of the posterior supraspinatus and posterosuperior labrum. This is classically described as:

. External impingement
. Internal impingement
. Subcoracoid impingement
. Primary outlet impingement
. TUBS syndrome

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Internal impingement


Explanation

Internal impingement occurs in overhead athletes during maximum abduction and external rotation. The articular surface of the rotator cuff gets pinched between the greater tuberosity and the posterosuperior glenoid.