Question 1
Topic: Shoulder & Hip SportsApproximately what percentage of middle-aged tennis players are able to return to tennis after rotator cuff surgery:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 80%
Practice Set 1 of 142
This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in Shoulder & Hip Sports. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Approximately what percentage of middle-aged tennis players are able to return to tennis after rotator cuff surgery:
. 80%
Internal snapping hip syndrome is typically caused by the snapping of which structure over the iliopectineal eminence or the femoral head?
. Iliopsoas tendon
A soccer player presents with chronic groin pain exacerbated by kicking and cutting. An MRI demonstrates a "cleft sign." This represents an injury to the aponeurosis of which two structures?
. Rectus abdominis and adductor longus
How does an Anterior Labroligamentous Periosteal Sleeve Avulsion (ALPSA) lesion differ from a classic Bankart lesion in anterior shoulder instability?
. ALPSA involves an intact anterior periosteum that is stripped and medially displaced.
A 24-year-old hockey player presents with deep anterior groin pain exacerbated by hip flexion and internal rotation. Imaging reveals an aspherical femoral head-neck junction with an alpha angle of 65 degrees. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Cam-type femoroacetabular impingement
A 22-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher complains of posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. MRI demonstrates articular-sided partial tearing of the infraspinatus and posterosuperior labral fraying. What is the pathophysiologic mechanism?
. Impingement of the greater tuberosity against the posterosuperior glenoid
A 28-year-old professional volleyball player presents with painless weakness in her dominant serving shoulder. Physical examination reveals isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus muscle and significant weakness during external rotation, but normal supraspinatus strength. At which anatomical location is the nerve most likely compressed?
. Spinoglenoid notch
A 22-year-old baseball pitcher presents with posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. He is diagnosed with internal impingement. This condition is characterized by pathological contact between the posterosuperior glenoid labrum and which of the following structures?
. The articular surface of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus tendons
A collegiate baseball pitcher presents with glenohumeral internal rotation deficit (GIRD). By true definition, GIRD involves a symptomatic loss of internal rotation compared to the contralateral non-throwing shoulder of at least how many degrees?
. 20 degrees
Which rotator cuff muscle is most commonly torn?
. Supraspinatus
What is the most common cause of shoulder instability?
. Traumatic anterior dislocation
Which of the following describes the function of the subacromial bursa?
. Reduces friction between the rotator cuff and acromion
To avoid injury associated with repetitive internal impingement, the pitchers long humeral axis must be in which position during the late cocking phase of throwing:
. Parallel to the plane of the scapula
Which of the following factors is related to recurrence after primary anterior shoulder dislocation:
. Patient age
The stabilizing ligamentous pulley of the long head of the biceps at the shoulder is composed of fibers from all of the following structures except:
. Middle glenohumeral ligament
. Male gender
A 19-year-old gymnast presents with bilateral shoulder pain and a sensation of instability. Examination shows a positive sulcus sign and positive apprehension in both anterior and posterior directions. What is the most appropriate initial management?
. Rotator cuff strengthening and periscapular stabilization program
A 22-year-old female runner complains of a painful clicking sensation deep in her anterior groin when extending her hip from a flexed position. Ultrasound confirms the diagnosis of internal snapping hip syndrome. Which anatomical structure is responsible for this snapping?
. Iliopsoas tendon over the iliopectineal eminence
A 16-year-old gymnast presents with bilateral shoulder pain, a sensation of subluxation, a positive sulcus sign, and generalized ligamentous laxity. What should be the initial management for this condition?
. Physical therapy emphasizing periscapular strengthening
A professional baseball pitcher complains of posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. MRI demonstrates articular-sided fraying of the posterior supraspinatus and posterosuperior labrum. This is classically described as:
. Internal impingement