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Question 341

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

During diagnostic arthroscopy for recurrent anterior shoulder instability, the surgeon identifies an anterior labral tear. The anterior scapular periosteum is intact, but the labrum and inferior glenohumeral ligament have healed medially on the anterior glenoid neck.

What is the classic eponym for this lesion?

. Bankart lesion
. ALPSA lesion
. GLAD lesion
. HAGL lesion
. Perthes lesion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. ALPSA lesion


Explanation

An Anterior Labroligamentous Periosteal Sleeve Avulsion (ALPSA) lesion involves medial displacement of the labroligamentous complex with an intact periosteal sleeve. Unlike a classic Bankart lesion, it heals in an abnormal medialized position.

Question 342

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old overhead athlete undergoes an arthroscopic Bankart repair with a concurrent remplissage procedure. Which of the following kinematic changes is most likely to result from the addition of the remplissage?

. Increased obligate anterior translation
. Significant decrease in internal rotation at 90 degrees of abduction
. Measurable decrease in external rotation
. Increased anterior-posterior laxity
. Superior migration of the humeral head

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Measurable decrease in external rotation


Explanation

Remplissage involves tenodesis of the infraspinatus and capsule into a Hill-Sachs defect. Its primary biomechanical consequence is a slight to moderate restriction in external rotation, which tethers the humeral head and prevents the defect from engaging the anterior glenoid.

Question 343

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 24-year-old rugby player has recurrent shoulder instability. 3D CT reconstructions are analyzed to determine the 'Glenoid Track'.

How is the width of the intact glenoid track calculated?

. 100% of the glenoid width minus the anterior bone loss
. 83% of the glenoid width minus the anterior bone loss
. 75% of the glenoid width plus the width of the Hill-Sachs lesion
. Distance from the bare spot to the anterior rim multiplied by 2
. Distance between the superior and inferior glenoid poles

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 83% of the glenoid width minus the anterior bone loss


Explanation

The glenoid track is calculated as 83% of the native inferior glenoid width (based on the intact contralateral side or a perfect circle model) minus the measured anterior glenoid bone loss. A Hill-Sachs lesion that extends medial to this track is 'off-track'.

Question 344

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

During an open Latarjet procedure, the coracoid process is osteotomized and transferred to the anterior glenoid. To minimize the risk of injury to the musculocutaneous nerve, the surgeon must be aware of its anatomical relationship. At approximately what distance distal to the tip of the coracoid process does the musculocutaneous nerve typically enter the coracobrachialis muscle?

. 1 to 2 cm
. 3 to 8 cm
. 10 to 12 cm
. 14 to 16 cm
. It does not enter the coracobrachialis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 3 to 8 cm


Explanation

The musculocutaneous nerve typically enters the coracobrachialis muscle 3 to 8 cm (average ~5 cm) distal to the tip of the coracoid process. Retractors must be placed carefully to avoid neurapraxia or transection during the Latarjet.

Question 345

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

During a Latarjet procedure, the subscapularis muscle can be managed either by a split in line with its fibers or by a tenotomy. Proponents of the subscapularis split argue it provides which specific anatomical and functional advantage?

. Improved visualization of the inferior glenoid neck
. Preservation of the insertion of the lower subscapular nerve
. Easier placement of the coracoid graft flush with the articular cartilage
. Complete preservation of external rotation postoperatively
. Prevention of axillary nerve neuropraxia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Preservation of the insertion of the lower subscapular nerve


Explanation

A subscapularis split (typically between the upper two-thirds and lower one-third) helps preserve the innervation of the lower subscapularis muscle belly by the lower subscapular nerve, reducing the risk of postoperative subscapularis weakness compared to a full tenotomy.

Question 346

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old football player presents with a posterior labral tear and posterior instability.

During physical examination, which of the following tests is most specific for diagnosing a symptomatic posterior labral tear or recurrent posterior subluxation?

. O'Brien's active compression test
. Jerk test
. Apprehension test
. Speed's test
. Belly-press test

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Jerk test


Explanation

The Jerk test (and the Kim test) are highly specific physical examination maneuvers used to diagnose posterior labral lesions and posterior shoulder instability. An axial load is applied to an internally rotated, 90-degree abducted arm while moving it horizontally across the body.

Question 347

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old male with recurrent anterior shoulder instability and 30% glenoid bone loss underwent a Latarjet procedure 2 years ago. He now presents with a failed Latarjet, hardware loosening, and recurrent dislocations. A salvage procedure is planned. Which of the following describes an Eden-Hybinette procedure?

. Transfer of the conjoined tendon alone to the anterior glenoid
. Autogenous iliac crest bone grafting to the anterior glenoid
. Transfer of the distal clavicle to the anterior glenoid
. Allograft meniscal transplantation to reconstruct the labrum
. Rotational osteotomy of the proximal humerus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Autogenous iliac crest bone grafting to the anterior glenoid


Explanation

The Eden-Hybinette procedure involves reconstruction of the anterior glenoid using an autologous iliac crest bone graft. It is frequently utilized as a salvage option for massive glenoid bone loss or following a failed Latarjet procedure.

Question 348

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

In the evaluation of anterior shoulder instability, a Hill-Sachs lesion is considered 'engaging' if its long axis is parallel to the anterior glenoid rim when the arm is in which of the following positions?

. Adduction and internal rotation
. Abduction and internal rotation
. 90 degrees of abduction and maximum external rotation
. Forward elevation and external rotation
. Extension and neutral rotation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 90 degrees of abduction and maximum external rotation


Explanation

A Hill-Sachs lesion is functionally engaging when the defect drops over the anterior glenoid rim during the vulnerable position of 90 degrees of abduction and maximum external rotation, levering the humeral head out of the joint.

Question 349

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 60-year-old right hand-dominant women fell on her outstretched arm and sustained an anterior shoulder dislocation. The shoulder is reduced in the emergency department and she is seen for follow-up 1 week later wearing a sling. Examination reveals that she has significant difficulty raising her arm in forward elevation and has excessive external rotation compared to the contralateral shoulder. What is the next most appropriate step in management? Review Topic

. MRI
. Electromyography
. Open repair of the supraspinatus
. Arthrography
. Arthroscopic labral repair

Correct Answer & Explanation

. MRI


Explanation

In patients older than age 40 years, a high suspicion of a rotator cuff tear should be kept in those patients with weakness after shoulder dislocation. Both posterior rotator cuff and subscapularis injuries have been documented. The next most appropriate stepin management should be MRI. If the findings are negative, suspicion of nerve injury should lead to electromyography.

Question 350

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 47-year-old landscaper presents with worsening left shoulder pain and weakness. Three years ago, he injured the left shoulder in a fall and elected for nonoperative management to minimize time off from work. Physical therapy was effective until 6 months ago when his shoulder function worsened to the point that he is now unable to work. Examination of his active range of motion reveals forward elevation 120° with pain, abduction 100°, IR at neutral to T8 and ER at neutral 5°. He has a positive ER lag sign and Hornblower's sign. Belly press and lift-off tests are normal. A recent radiograph is shown in Figures A. MRI images are shown in Figures B and C. Which of the following is the best treatment option? Review Topic

. Continue physical therapy
. Latissimus dorsi transfer
. Arthroscopic rotator cuff repair
. Pectoralis major transfer
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Latissimus dorsi transfer


Explanation

This patient has a chronic massive posterosuperior rotator cuff tear with marked atrophy, tendon retraction and loss of external rotation strength that is impacting his daily life. The best treatment option for this middle-aged laborer with an irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear is a latissimus dorsi transfer to restore external rotation strength and motion.Irreparable rotator cuff tears are marked by: (1) Superior displacement of the humeral head (AHI < 5-7mm), (2) Fatty infiltration of the rotator cuff muscles (Goutallier stage 3-4), (3) Increased duration of the tendon tear and (4) Profound external rotation weakness. These findings are predictive of poor-quality tissue and stiffness of the muscle-tendon unit, not amenable to primary repair. In this setting, a latissimus dorsitransfer can be utilized to restore shoulder strength, function and improve pain. Relative contraindications include subscapularis deficiency, deltoid deficiency, pseudoparalysis of the shoulder and advanced glenohumeral arthritis.Gerber et al. performed a case series analysis of 67 patients with irreparable rotator cuff tears managed with latissimus dorsi transfer. Patients with an intact subscapularis demonstrated improvement in pain, range of motion and strength postoperatively, while no improvement was noted in patients with subscapularis deficiency. The authors conclude that latissimus dorsi transfer should not be performed in the setting of poor subscapularis function.Iannotti et al. found that better clinical results following latissimus dorsi transfer were associated with: preserved active shoulder range of motion and strength (specifically forward elevation > 90° and external rotation > 20°), synchronous firing of the transferred latissimus dorsi muscle and male gender.Figure A is an AP radiograph of the left shoulder with superior migration of the humeral head (AHI < 5mm) and no evidence of glenohumeral arthritis. Figures B and C show a retracted posterosuperior rotator cuff tear and Goutallier stage 4 atrophy (more fat than muscle) of the supraspinatus, infraspinatus and teres minor, rendering this tear irreparable. Illustration A shows a latissimus dorsi transfer. The latissimus dorsi tendon is positioned over the top of the humeral head, covering most of the rotator cuff defect. The tendon is then secured to the subscapularis tendon edge and lesser tuberosity anteriorly, the remnant supraspinatus and infraspinatus tendons medially, and the greater tuberosity laterally.Incorrect Answers:

Question 351

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 54-year-old man undergoes total shoulder arthroplasty for osteoarthritis. Despite compliance with an early passive range-of-motion exercise program, he does not regain more than 90 degrees of elevation, 10 degrees of external rotation, and has internal rotation to the fifth lumbar vertebra. At 6 months, his motion fails to improve. Radiographs are shown in Figures 18a and 18b. What is the best course of action?
. Continue with a more aggressive passive range-of-motion exercise program.
. Perform an open release.
. Revise the humeral component and increase retroversion.
. Revise the humeral component alone after osteotomizing more of the humeral neck and seating the component lower.
. Remove the glenoid component to decrease tension in the rotator cuff.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Perform an open release.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The patient has a global loss of motion that has failed to improve with 6 months of nonsurgical treatment; because he has reached a plateau, further nonsurgical management will likely be ineffective. Revision in the form of an open release is indicated to lyse intra- and extra-articular adhesions; subscapularis lengthening may be done concurrently as needed. Revising to a smaller head can be considered if adequate motion is not achieved. The radiographs reveal an adequate neck cut with appropriate seating of the component. Removing the glenoid component will decrease capsular tension but will probably increase pain because of the lack of glenoid resurfacing. Increasing humeral retroversion will not improve motion. REFERENCES: Cuomo F, Checroun A: Avoiding pitfalls and complication in total shoulder arthroplasty. Orthop Clin North Am 1998;29:507-518. Wirth MA, Rockwood CA Jr: Complications of shoulder arthroplasty. Clin Orthop 1994;307:47-69.

Question 352

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 35-year-old man presents one week after an acute right shoulder posterior dislocation after being electrocuted. He is evaluated in the emergency department and undergoes closed reduction. The patient reports global right shoulder pain and limited active and passive range of motion. He has mild anterior and lateral bruising. He is distally neurovascularly intact. Current radiographs and an MRI scan are shown in Figures 1 through 3. What is the best next step?

. Open reduction internal fixation (ORIF)
. Sling immobilization in external rotation
. Bristow-Latarjet
. Shoulder hemiarthroplastyThe patient has sustained a displaced lesser tuberosity fracture with medial displacement following a posterior shoulder dislocation. Nonoperative management would risk long-term loss of normal subscapularis function, as well as anterior shoulder instability. An ORIF of lesser tuberosity is recommended. The current radiographs do not demonstrate any obvious compromise of glenoid bone stock that would necessitate a coracoid transfer. The humeral head is not compromised; therefore, a hemiarthroplasty is not indicated. Correct answer : A 5776- A 51-year-old man sustains the injury shown in the MRI scan in Figures 1 and 2 following a fall. After a thorough discussion regarding risks and benefits, he elects to proceed with surgery. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment for his fracture?
. Open reduction internal fixation with locking plate
. Intramedullary (IM) nail
. Hemiarthroplasty
. Closed reduction and percutaneous pinningThe patient has sustained a complex proximal humerus fracture with head split component and multiple articular fragments. When the articular surface is significantly compromised, arthroplasty procedures are favored. The only procedure listed that addresses the damaged humeral head is hemiarthroplasty, making it the correct response. Although a possible option, ORIF would be difficult due to the fragmented humeral head, and there would be a high risk for fracture collapse or avascular necrosis. IM nailing will not provide enough control of the fracture pieces, nor will it replace the damaged articular surface. Closed reduction is not an option given the complex nature of the fracture.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Open reduction internal fixation (ORIF)


Explanation

A 68-year-old man presents with chronic progressive right shoulder pain and loss of motion. He has active shoulder elevation of 120° and 5-/5 shoulder forward flexion strength limited by pain. He has exhausted nonsurgical management over the past year and is now interested in surgical intervention. Figure 1 is the preoperative axial CT scan of his shoulder. During surgical reconstruction, the surgeon should anticipate the location of maximal glenoid erosion to be

Question 353

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 38-year-old man reports a 6-week history of shoulder pain and stiffness after falling on the stairs and landing onto the affected side. Radiographs are shown in Figures 54a and 54b. What is the most appropriate treatment? Review Topic

. Physical therapy including ultrasound and gentle stretches
. Closed manipulation of the shoulder
. MRI and possible rotator cuff repair
. Open glenohumeral reduction, with possible lesser tuberosity transfer
. Shoulder hemiarthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Open glenohumeral reduction, with possible lesser tuberosity transfer


Explanation

The patient has a chronic posterior shoulder dislocation of 6-weeks duration. A CT scan will provide preoperative information regarding the size of the McLaughlin or reverse Hill-Sachs lesion. Open glenohumeral reduction with transfer of the lesser tuberosity and attached subscapularis has been shown to be successful in stabilizing a posterior dislocation. Closed reduction is highly unlikely to achieve a reduction and may cause displacement of an unrecognized humeral surgical neck fracture. Hemiarthroplasty would be considered for lesions involving more than 50% of the humeral head or when the joint has been dislocated for several months and late collapse of the head postreduction is likely. Rotator cuff tears are not commonly associated with posterior shoulder dislocation.

Question 354

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 52-year-old man underwent arthroscopic repair of a 1-cm supraspinatus tendon tear 3 weeks ago. He was doing well until he fell down three stairs. One week after the fall he continues to report pain similar to his preoperative pain. An MRI scan reveals a minimally retracted 1-cm supraspinatus tendon tear in the same location as his original tear. Management should now consist of Review Topic

. continued physical therapy that focuses on stretching and advances to strengthening in 4 weeks.
. a cortisone injection into the subacromial space.
. revision rotator cuff repair.
. a sling with an abduction pillow for 2 weeks, followed by a stretching program.
. open rotator cuff debridement without repair.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. revision rotator cuff repair.


Explanation

The patient has retorn his rotator cuff repair. This traumatic retear is different from a chronic tear and should be treated similar to an acute rotator cuff tear. Because the patient is younger than age 65 and has a small, single tendon tear, a revision rotation cuff repair is indicated with an expected tendon healing rate of greater than 95%. A physical therapy program is not indicated, and further delay in repair compromises his functional recovery. A cortisone injection is not indicated for this repairable tendon tear. Immobilization will not allow the tendon to heal once it has retorn. A debridement procedure is not indicated on this repairable tendon tear; this procedure is indicated in painful, chronic, irreparable tendon tears.

Question 355

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

Atraumatic suprascapular nerve compression usually occurs at which of the following anatomic locations if it develops atraumatically? Review Topic

. Scalenus anterior
. Suprascapular and spinoglenoid notches
. Cervical rib
. Conjoined tendon
. Subcoracoid

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Suprascapular and spinoglenoid notches


Explanation

The suprascapular nerve has the potential to be compressed as it passes through the suprascapular and spinoglenoid notches. If the site of compression occurs at the suprascapular notch, both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles will be affected. If the site of compression occurs at the spinoglenoid notch, only the infraspinatus muscle will be affected. Fascial bands and ganglion cysts often compress the nerve in these areas. The other anatomic areas are not associated with suprascapular nerve compression.

Question 356

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 20-year-old man has activity-related deep-seated shoulder pain in his dominant right shoulder. He has taken 3 months off training as a college javelin thrower, and management consisting of physical therapy has failed to provide relief. Shoulder arthroscopic views are shown in Figures 16a through 16c. What is the underlying association with this condition? Review Topic

. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
. Traumatic anterior instability
. Humeral head osteonecrosis
. Internal impingement
. Partial-thickness supraspinatus tear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Internal impingement


Explanation

The patient is involved in overhead athletics and reports deep-seated pain. The arthroscopic views show a SLAP tear with posterior extension that is typical of internal impingement. The history lacks a component of gross instability expected in traumatic anterior dislocations or multidirectional instability associated with a connective tissue disorder, and it also lacks risk factors for osteonecrosis. The images do not show evidence of an unstable humeral cartilage flap or a supraspinatus tear.

Question 357

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 32-year-old volleyball player has dull posterior shoulder pain. An examination reveals moderate external rotation weakness with his arm at his side but normal strength on supraspinatus isolation. Deltoid and supraspinatus bulk appear normal, although there appears to be mild infraspinatus atrophy. Sensation is normal throughout the shoulder and shoulder girdle. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Calcified transverse scapular ligament
. Parsonage-Turner syndrome
. Spinoglenoid notch cyst
. Quadrilateral space syndrome

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Spinoglenoid notch cyst


Explanation

This clinical scenario describes a patient with an isolated injury affecting the infraspinatus muscle. The anatomic location of such a lesion would be at the spinoglenoid notch, at which the suprascapular nerve may be compressed distal to its innervation of the supraspinatus but proximal to the infraspinatus innervation. A calcified transverse scapular ligament would also affect the suprascapular nerve but is proximal to the innervation of both muscles. Quadrilateral space syndrome would affect innervation of the deltoid (and teres minor). Parsonage-Turner syndrome is a more diffuse, and often severely painful, brachial plexus neuropathy.

Question 358

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

Figures 1 and 2 are the most recent radiographs of an 18-year-old high school student who sustains an anterior shoulder dislocation playing recreational football. He has a low Beighton score on physical examination. He was closed reduced and underwent a course of physical therapy but had a second dislocation playing recreational basketball. What is the most appropriate course of treatment, with the lowest complication rate, to prevent further dislocation?

. Arthroscopic Bankart procedure
. Physical therapy
. SAWA shoulder brace
. Latarjet procedure

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic Bankart procedure


Explanation

The patient has recurrent instability and is at a high rate of further dislocations due to his young age. Therefore, therapy and bracing are unlikely to decrease his dislocation rate. The radiographs are normal, and there is no Hill-Sachs lesion or bony Bankart lesion. His instability severity index score is 3, and; therefore, a bony procedure such as Latarjet is not necessary. Furthermore, the rate of complication following a Latarjet procedure, especially nerveinjury and hardware problems, exceeds that of arthroscopic Bankart repair.

Question 359

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 38-year-old man sustained a complete thoracic spinal cord injury at age 14. An MRI scan of his shoulder, when compared with studies from uninjured controls, is more likely to show which of the following? Review Topic

. Hypertrophied subscapular muscle
. Rotator cuff tear
. Posterior glenohumeral subluxation
. Increased bone density
. Supraspinatus nerve compression

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Rotator cuff tear


Explanation

Children that sustain a spinal cord injury or otherwise use a wheelchair for mobility, and thus often have more pain and a higher incidence of structural and functional changes of the shoulder joint as an adult. MRI studies have shown a four-fold risk of rotator cuff tears in people with long-term paraplegia when compared with age-matched controls. An MRI scan would not show bone density changes. The other answer choices have not been demonstrated in higher numbers on MRI in paraplegics.

Question 360

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
After closed reduction of the dislocation shown in Figure 42, it is essential to avoid placing the upper extremity in what position for the first 4 to 6 weeks?
. Abduction
. External rotation
. Internal rotation
. Extension
. Elevation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. External rotation


Explanation

Acute posterior dislocations occur rarely, accounting for less than 5% of acute dislocations. They are most often the result of falls on an outstretched hand. Reduction can be accomplished with flexion of the arm to 90 degrees and adduction to disimpact the humeral head from the glenoid rim. The arm is then externally rotated until the head has cleared the glenoid rim. Following brace immobilization in neutral to 5 to 10 degrees of external rotation and slight abduction, it is critical to avoid internal rotation for 4 to 6 weeks.