Shoulder & Hip Sports MCQs

During arthroscopic stabilization for recurrent anterior shoulder instability, the surgeon identifies an ALPSA lesion. Which of the following best describes the anatomic pathomorphology of this specific lesion?

A surgeon plans an arthroscopic Bankart repair with Remplissage for a patient with 10% anterior glenoid bone loss and an "off-track" Hill-Sachs lesion. Which structure is tenodesed into the humeral head defect during the Remplissage portion of the procedure?

A 19-year-old gymnast complains of bilateral shoulder pain and a sensation that her shoulders are "slipping out of place." Physical examination demonstrates generalized ligamentous laxity, a positive sulcus sign of 2.5 cm bilaterally, and apprehension with anterior and posterior translation. What is the most appropriate initial management?

A 24-year-old athlete with recurrent anterior shoulder instability undergoes an arthroscopic Bankart repair. Preoperative imaging demonstrated 10% glenoid bone loss and an 'off-track' Hill-Sachs lesion. Which of the following is the most appropriate concurrent procedure?

A 45-year-old male presents to the emergency department after a seizure. He complains of right shoulder pain and an inability to rotate the arm externally. Radiographs show a 'lightbulb' sign on the AP view. What is the most likely associated osseous defect?

A 38-year-old male suffers a posterior shoulder dislocation. Imaging reveals an anteromedial humeral head defect comprising 30% of the articular surface. Which of the following surgical interventions is most appropriate?

A 16-year-old female swimmer presents with bilateral shoulder pain and a sensation of her shoulders 'slipping out' during her stroke. Physical exam shows a positive sulcus sign and generalized ligamentous laxity. After a 6-month trial of directed physical therapy, she remains highly symptomatic. Which surgical procedure is most indicated?

During an arthroscopic stabilization for anterior shoulder instability, the surgeon notes that the anterior labroligamentous complex is avulsed from the glenoid and has healed medially on the anterior neck of the scapula with an intact periosteal sleeve. This finding is best described as which of the following?

A 19-year-old male recreational basketball player undergoes an arthroscopic Bankart repair for recurrent anterior shoulder instability. Which of the following factors is associated with the highest risk of recurrent instability following this procedure?

The 'glenoid track' is a critical concept in evaluating shoulder instability. How is the width of the normal glenoid track calculated relative to the uninjured glenoid width (D)?

A 22-year-old overhead athlete presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan is ordered to evaluate for glenoid bone loss. The concept of the 'glenoid track' is utilized to determine if a Hill-Sachs lesion will engage the anterior glenoid rim. Which of the following formulas correctly calculates the width of the glenoid track?

A 26-year-old male is scheduled for a Latarjet procedure due to a 20% anterior glenoid bone defect. During the procedure, the coracoid is osteotomized and transferred to the anterior glenoid. The 'sling effect' contributes significantly to the stability provided by this procedure. This dynamic effect is primarily created by the conjoint tendon compressing against which structure?

A 40-year-old male sustains a seizure and subsequently complains of severe left shoulder pain with restricted external rotation. An AP radiograph of the shoulder shows a symmetric appearance of the humeral head with a loss of the normal half-moon overlap of the humeral head and glenoid. What is the classic radiologic descriptor for this finding?

During arthroscopic evaluation of a patient with recurrent anterior shoulder instability, an anterior labroligamentous periosteal sleeve avulsion (ALPSA) lesion is identified. How does this primarily differ pathoanatomically from a classic Bankart lesion?

A 19-year-old collegiate wrestler suffers a first-time traumatic anterior shoulder dislocation. After successful closed reduction, what single factor places this patient at the highest statistical risk for recurrent instability if managed non-operatively?

In cases of critical glenoid bone loss with an off-track Hill-Sachs lesion, a remplissage procedure is often performed concurrently with a Bankart repair. What does the arthroscopic remplissage technique specifically involve?

A 32-year-old male sustains a posterior shoulder dislocation complicated by a reverse Hill-Sachs lesion that involves 30% of the articular surface. Which of the following procedures (McLaughlin procedure) was traditionally described for managing this specific bony defect?

A 29-year-old male with recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations is undergoing a 3D CT scan to evaluate for bipolar bone loss. Based on current literature, a Hill-Sachs lesion is most likely to 'engage' the anterior glenoid rim during which specific arm position?

During a Latarjet procedure, an osteotomy of the coracoid process is performed. To maximize the bone block size while avoiding detachment of the coracoclavicular ligaments, the osteotomy should be made exactly at what anatomical landmark?

A 25-year-old athlete undergoes an MRI arthrogram for chronic shoulder pain following a mild subluxation event. The scan reveals a superficial anterior-inferior labral tear associated with adjacent articular cartilage damage on the glenoid, but the anterior band of the IGHL is intact. What is the diagnosis?