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Question 2781

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 55-year-old male carpenter presents with a 3-month history of right shoulder pain and weakness, particularly when reaching overhead. He has a positive Jobe's (empty can) test and a positive drop arm test. MRI confirms a full-thickness tear of the supraspinatus tendon with 2 cm of retraction. Which of the following biomechanical consequences is most likely to occur if this tear is left untreated and progresses to massive size?

. Superior migration of the humeral head
. Inferior subluxation of the humeral head
. Anterior instability of the glenohumeral joint
. Increased acromiohumeral distance
. Medialization of the center of rotation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Superior migration of the humeral head


Explanation

Correct Answer: AThe supraspinatus, along with the rest of the rotator cuff, functions to depress and stabilize the humeral head within the glenoid during arm elevation, counteracting the upward pull of the deltoid muscle. A massive, chronic tear of the supraspinatus (and often infraspinatus) leads to a loss of this compressive force, allowing the unopposed pull of the deltoid to cause superior migration of the humeral head. This decreases the acromiohumeral distance and can eventually lead to rotator cuff arthropathy.

Question 2782

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 55-year-old male carpenter presents with chronic right shoulder pain and weakness, particularly when lifting objects above his head. Physical examination reveals a positive Jobe's (empty can) test and weakness in active shoulder abduction. Which of the following muscles is most likely affected?

. Subscapularis
. Infraspinatus
. Teres minor
. Supraspinatus
. Deltoid

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Supraspinatus


Explanation

Correct Answer: DAnatomy:The rotator cuff consists of four muscles: Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus, Teres minor, and Subscapularis.Pathology:The supraspinatus is the most commonly torn rotator cuff tendon, largely due to its vulnerable location in the subacromial space where it is susceptible to impingement and hypovascularity (critical zone).Clinical Testing:The Jobe's test (empty can test) specifically isolates the supraspinatus muscle. The patient abducts the arms to 90 degrees, angles them forward 30 degrees (scapular plane), and internally rotates the arms (thumbs pointing down). The examiner then applies downward pressure. Pain or weakness indicates supraspinatus pathology.

Question 2783

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 55-year-old male undergoes arthroscopic rotator cuff repair for a massive tear involving the supraspinatus and infraspinatus tendons. During the procedure, the surgeon must be careful to avoid injury to the suprascapular nerve. At which anatomical location is the suprascapular nerve most vulnerable to injury during medial mobilization of a retracted infraspinatus tendon?

. Quadrilateral space
. Triangular interval
. Spinoglenoid notch
. Suprascapular notch
. Spiral groove

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Spinoglenoid notch


Explanation

Correct Answer: C (Spinoglenoid notch)The suprascapular nerve passes through the suprascapular notch (where it innervates the supraspinatus) and then winds around the base of the scapular spine through the spinoglenoid notch to innervate the infraspinatus. It is most vulnerable to traction injury at the spinoglenoid notch during excessive medial mobilization of a retracted infraspinatus tendon. Mobilization greater than 1 to 2 cm medial to the glenoid rim significantly increases the risk of iatrogenic nerve injury.

Question 2784

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 55-year-old male presents with right shoulder pain and weakness after lifting a heavy box. Physical examination reveals a positive drop arm test and weakness with resisted shoulder abduction in the scapular plane. MRI confirms a full-thickness tear of the most commonly injured rotator cuff tendon. Where does this specific tendon insert anatomically?

. Lesser tuberosity of the humerus
. Superior facet of the greater tuberosity
. Middle facet of the greater tuberosity
. Inferior facet of the greater tuberosity
. Bicipital groove

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Superior facet of the greater tuberosity


Explanation

Correct Answer: BThe supraspinatus is the most commonly torn rotator cuff tendon. It functions to initiate shoulder abduction and provides dynamic stabilization of the glenohumeral joint. Anatomically, the supraspinatus inserts onto the superior facet of the greater tuberosity of the humerus. The infraspinatus inserts on the middle facet, and the teres minor inserts on the inferior facet. The subscapularis, which internally rotates the shoulder, inserts on the lesser tuberosity.

Question 2785

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 55-year-old male presents with chronic shoulder pain and weakness in abduction and external rotation. MRI confirms a massive, retracted tear of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus tendons. Which of the following nerves provides the primary motor innervation to both of these affected muscles, and through which anatomical structure does it pass to reach the infraspinatus?

. Axillary nerve; quadrangular space
. Suprascapular nerve; spinoglenoid notch
. Suprascapular nerve; suprascapular notch
. Subscapular nerve; triangular space
. Musculocutaneous nerve; coracobrachialis muscle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Suprascapular nerve; spinoglenoid notch


Explanation

Correct Answer: Suprascapular nerve; spinoglenoid notchThe suprascapular nerve, arising from the upper trunk of the brachial plexus (C5, C6), provides motor innervation to both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles. It first passes through the suprascapular notch (under the transverse scapular ligament) to innervate the supraspinatus. It then continues laterally and inferiorly, passing through the spinoglenoid notch (under the spinoglenoid ligament) to reach and innervate the infraspinatus. Compression at the suprascapular notch affects both muscles, whereas compression at the spinoglenoid notch (e.g., by a paralabral cyst) results in isolated infraspinatus weakness.

Question 2786

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old collegiate offensive lineman presents with recurrent posterior shoulder instability. He has not had any frank dislocations but experiences subluxations when blocking. He wishes to pursue non-operative management. A physical therapy program is initiated. Which of the following muscle groups should be the primary focus of his strengthening program?

. Pectoralis major and latissimus dorsi
. Infraspinatus, teres minor, and posterior deltoid
. Subscapularis and anterior deltoid
. Trapezius and levator scapulae
. Biceps brachii and coracobrachialis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Infraspinatus, teres minor, and posterior deltoid


Explanation

Correct Answer: BConservative management of recurrent unidirectional posterior shoulder instability focuses heavily on strengthening the dynamic posterior stabilizers of the shoulder. These primarily include the external rotators (infraspinatus and teres minor) and the posterior head of the deltoid. Strengthening these muscles helps to dynamically resist posterior translation of the humeral head during provocative activities, such as blocking in football.

Question 2787

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 35-year-old male with a history of poorly controlled epilepsy presents to the clinic with chronic right shoulder pain and limited range of motion following a seizure 3 weeks ago. He is unable to externally rotate his right shoulder past neutral. An AP radiograph of the shoulder reveals a symmetric appearance of the humeral head with loss of the normal half-moon overlap. Which of the following additional radiographic findings is most specific for his suspected diagnosis?

. Hill-Sachs lesion
. Bony Bankart lesion
. Trough line sign
. Superior migration of the humeral head
. Calcific tendinitis of the supraspinatus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Trough line sign


Explanation

Correct Answer: CThe patient has a missed posterior shoulder dislocation, which is a common complication following seizures. The AP radiograph describes the "lightbulb sign," which is a symmetric appearance of the humeral head due to fixed internal rotation. The "trough line sign" represents a reverse Hill-Sachs lesion (an impaction fracture of the anteromedial humeral head against the posterior glenoid rim), which is highly specific for a posterior dislocation.

Question 2788

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 40-year-old male presents with a chronic, locked posterior shoulder dislocation that occurred during an electrocution injury 4 weeks ago. A CT scan reveals an anteromedial humeral head impaction fracture (reverse Hill-Sachs lesion) involving 35% of the articular surface. Which of the following surgical interventions is most appropriate?

. Closed reduction and spica casting
. Arthroscopic posterior labral repair
. Open reduction and transfer of the lesser tuberosity into the defect
. Total shoulder arthroplasty
. Latarjet procedure

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Open reduction and transfer of the lesser tuberosity into the defect


Explanation

Correct Answer: CFor a reverse Hill-Sachs lesion involving 20% to 40% of the articular surface, the modified McLaughlin procedure is indicated. This involves the transfer of the lesser tuberosity with its attached subscapularis tendon into the anteromedial defect to prevent recurrent engagement of the defect on the posterior glenoid rim. Defects greater than 40-50% typically require arthroplasty.

Question 2789

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 21-year-old rugby player sustains a posterior shoulder dislocation after falling on an outstretched, internally rotated arm. Following closed reduction, an MRI is obtained. It reveals a detachment of the posterior labrum and posterior capsule from the glenoid rim. What is the eponymous name for this specific lesion?

. Bankart lesion
. ALPSA lesion
. Reverse Bankart lesion
. GLAD lesion
. HAGL lesion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Reverse Bankart lesion


Explanation

Correct Answer: CA reverse Bankart lesion is an avulsion of the posterior labrum and posterior capsular complex from the posterior glenoid rim. It is the posterior equivalent of the classic anterior Bankart lesion and is commonly seen following a traumatic posterior shoulder dislocation.

Question 2790

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

Posterior shoulder dislocations account for approximately 2-5% of all shoulder dislocations. While trauma is a common cause, non-traumatic etiologies are classically associated with this injury due to intense, uncoordinated muscle contractions. Which of the following muscles' overpowering force is primarily responsible for posterior dislocation during a seizure?

. Pectoralis major, latissimus dorsi, and subscapularis
. Infraspinatus and teres minor
. Deltoid and supraspinatus
. Biceps brachii and coracobrachialis
. Trapezius and rhomboids

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pectoralis major, latissimus dorsi, and subscapularis


Explanation

Correct Answer: ADuring a seizure or electrocution, the strong internal rotators of the shoulder (pectoralis major, latissimus dorsi, and subscapularis) overpower the relatively weaker external rotators (infraspinatus and teres minor). This massive, uncoordinated contraction forces the humeral head into severe internal rotation and drives it posteriorly out of the glenoid fossa.

Question 2791

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A surgeon is performing an open posterior stabilization for recurrent posterior shoulder instability. The classic posterior approach to the shoulder utilizes an internervous plane. Which of the following describes the correct internervous plane for this approach?

. Between the supraspinatus (suprascapular nerve) and infraspinatus (suprascapular nerve)
. Between the infraspinatus (suprascapular nerve) and teres minor (axillary nerve)
. Between the teres minor (axillary nerve) and teres major (lower subscapular nerve)
. Between the deltoid (axillary nerve) and pectoralis major (medial and lateral pectoral nerves)
. Between the subscapularis (upper and lower subscapular nerves) and supraspinatus (suprascapular nerve)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Between the infraspinatus (suprascapular nerve) and teres minor (axillary nerve)


Explanation

Correct Answer: BThe classic open posterior approach to the shoulder utilizes the true internervous plane between the infraspinatus (innervated by the suprascapular nerve) and the teres minor (innervated by the axillary nerve). This approach allows safe access to the posterior capsule and glenoid without denervating the posterior rotator cuff musculature.

Question 2792

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old collegiate offensive lineman presents with recurrent posterior shoulder instability. He has not experienced any frank dislocations but reports a sensation of the shoulder 'slipping out' posteriorly when blocking. MRI shows a nondisplaced posterior labral tear without significant glenoid bone loss. He elects to undergo conservative management. A targeted physical therapy program should primarily emphasize strengthening of which of the following muscle groups?

. Pectoralis major and subscapularis
. Infraspinatus, teres minor, and posterior deltoid
. Supraspinatus and anterior deltoid
. Latissimus dorsi and teres major
. Serratus anterior and trapezius

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Infraspinatus, teres minor, and posterior deltoid


Explanation

Correct Answer: BConservative management of posterior shoulder instability focuses on strengthening the dynamic posterior stabilizers of the shoulder. These include the infraspinatus, teres minor, and the posterior head of the deltoid. Strengthening these muscles helps to dynamically resist posterior translation of the humeral head during provocative positions, such as when the arm is flexed, adducted, and internally rotated.

Question 2793

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 40-year-old male presents with a locked posterior shoulder dislocation that occurred 3 weeks ago following an unrecognized seizure. CT scan demonstrates a reverse Hill-Sachs lesion involving 35% of the articular surface. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management for this osseous defect?

. Closed reduction and spica casting
. Arthroscopic posterior labral repair
. Transfer of the lesser tuberosity and subscapularis tendon into the defect
. Transfer of the greater tuberosity and infraspinatus tendon into the defect
. Latarjet procedure

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Transfer of the lesser tuberosity and subscapularis tendon into the defect


Explanation

Correct Answer: CThe management of a reverse Hill-Sachs lesion depends on the size of the articular defect. Defects <20% can often be managed with closed reduction and immobilization if stable. Defects between 20% and 40% are typically managed with a modified McLaughlin procedure, which involves the transfer of the lesser tuberosity (along with the attached subscapularis tendon) into the anteromedial humeral head defect to prevent engagement on the posterior glenoid rim. Defects >40-50% generally require hemiarthroplasty or total shoulder arthroplasty.

Question 2794

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A surgeon is performing an open posterior stabilization for recurrent posterior shoulder instability. The classic posterior approach to the shoulder utilizes an internervous plane between which of the following two muscles?

. Supraspinatus and infraspinatus
. Infraspinatus and teres minor
. Teres minor and teres major
. Deltoid and triceps
. Rhomboid major and latissimus dorsi

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Infraspinatus and teres minor


Explanation

Correct Answer: BThe classic posterior approach to the shoulder utilizes the internervous plane between the infraspinatus (innervated by the suprascapular nerve) and the teres minor (innervated by the axillary nerve). This plane allows safe access to the posterior capsule and glenohumeral joint while minimizing the risk of denervating the posterior rotator cuff musculature.

Question 2795

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 24-year-old weightlifter presents with deep posterior shoulder pain and clicking. He has a positive Jerk test and a positive Kim test. MRI arthrogram reveals a concealed, incomplete avulsion of the posteroinferior labrum without capsular detachment. This specific pathology is best described as:
. A reverse Bankart lesion
. A Kim lesion
. A SLAP tear
. A POLPSA lesion
. A GLAD lesion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A Kim lesion


Explanation

A Kim lesion is defined as a concealed, incomplete avulsion of the posteroinferior labrum. Unlike a reverse Bankart lesion, the posterior capsule remains attached to the glenoid, and the labrum is not completely detached, making it sometimes difficult to visualize from a standard anterior arthroscopic portal. The Kim test and Jerk test are highly sensitive and specific for posteroinferior labral pathology.

Question 2796

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

During the physical examination of a 19-year-old male with suspected posterior shoulder instability, the examiner places the patient's arm in 90 degrees of abduction and internal rotation. The examiner then applies an axial load to the humerus while horizontally adducting the arm. A sudden clunk is felt as the humeral head subluxates posteriorly. As the arm is returned to the starting position, a second clunk is felt. This clinical test is known as the:

. O'Brien test
. Apprehension test
. Jerk test
. Sulcus sign
. Neer impingement sign

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Jerk test


Explanation

Correct Answer: CThe Jerk test is used to evaluate for posterior shoulder instability. The patient's arm is abducted to 90 degrees and internally rotated. An axial load is applied to the humerus, and the arm is horizontally adducted. A positive test is indicated by a sudden clunk as the humeral head subluxates posteriorly off the glenoid. A second clunk may be felt as the arm is returned to the starting position and the humeral head reduces.

Question 2797

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old male presents to the clinic with a history of recurrent posterior shoulder subluxations. To best evaluate for the presence of a reverse Hill-Sachs lesion on plain radiography, which of the following views is most appropriate?

. True anteroposterior (Grashey) view
. Scapular Y view
. Stryker notch view
. West Point axillary view
. Zanca view

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Stryker notch view


Explanation

Correct Answer: CThe Stryker notch view is specifically designed to evaluate for posterolateral and anteromedial humeral head defects (Hill-Sachs and reverse Hill-Sachs lesions). The patient is supine with the hand placed on top of the head (arm forward flexed to ~100 degrees), and the x-ray beam is directed 10 degrees cephalad. The West Point axillary view is best for evaluating the anteroinferior glenoid rim (bony Bankart).

Question 2798

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old collegiate offensive lineman presents with a history of recurrent posterior shoulder instability. He has not had any frank dislocations but experiences pain and a sensation of subluxation when his arm is forward flexed, adducted, and internally rotated during blocking maneuvers. He is prescribed a comprehensive physical therapy program. Which of the following muscles should be the primary focus of strengthening to dynamically stabilize the glenohumeral joint against posterior translation?

. Subscapularis
. Pectoralis major
. Infraspinatus
. Serratus anterior
. Latissimus dorsi

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Infraspinatus


Explanation

Correct Answer: InfraspinatusConservative management of recurrent unidirectional posterior shoulder instability emphasizes strengthening of the dynamic posterior stabilizers. The primary muscles targeted are the infraspinatus, teres minor, and the posterior head of the deltoid. These muscles work synergistically to provide a dynamic posterior buttress and compress the humeral head into the glenoid, counteracting posteriorly directed forces. Strengthening the subscapularis or pectoralis major would exacerbate the internal rotation forces that contribute to posterior instability.

Question 2799

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 19-year-old male weightlifter complains of vague posterior shoulder pain that worsens during the descent phase of the bench press. You suspect underlying posterior shoulder instability and a possible labral tear. Which of the following physical examination maneuvers is most specific for detecting a posteroinferior labral tear?

. O'Brien test
. Kim test
. Apprehension test
. Speed test
. Neer impingement sign

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Kim test


Explanation

Correct Answer: Kim testThe Kim test is highly sensitive and specific for detecting posteroinferior labral tears, which are often associated with posterior shoulder instability. It is performed with the patient seated and the arm in 90 degrees of abduction. The examiner applies an axial load to the elbow while simultaneously elevating the arm 45 degrees diagonally upward and backward. Sudden onset of posterior shoulder pain indicates a positive test. The O'Brien test evaluates for SLAP tears, the Apprehension test is for anterior instability, and the Speed test evaluates the long head of the biceps.

Question 2800

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 40-year-old male presents with a locked posterior shoulder dislocation that occurred 3 weeks ago following an electrical shock. Computed tomography (CT) imaging reveals an anteromedial humeral head defect involving 35% of the articular surface. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management to prevent recurrent instability?

. Closed reduction and sling immobilization in internal rotation
. Arthroscopic posterior labral repair
. Transfer of the subscapularis tendon into the defect
. Transfer of the infraspinatus tendon into the defect
. Total shoulder arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Closed reduction and sling immobilization in internal rotation


Explanation

Correct Answer: Transfer of the subscapularis tendon into the defectThe management of a reverse Hill-Sachs lesion depends on the size of the articular defect. For defects involving 20% to 40% of the articular surface, a McLaughlin procedure (transfer of the subscapularis tendon into the defect) or a modified McLaughlin procedure (transfer of the lesser tuberosity with the attached subscapularis tendon) is indicated. This prevents the defect from engaging the posterior glenoid rim during internal rotation. Defects less than 20% can often be managed non-operatively or with simple reduction, while defects greater than 40-50% typically require arthroplasty.