Shoulder & Hip Sports MCQs

When examining a patient with suspected glenohumeral osteoarthritis, a 'grinding sensation' or crepitus elicited during range of motion is most likely due to:

A 28-year-old male athlete presents with anterior groin pain worsened by deep hip flexion. Radiographs reveal a crossover sign, a prominent ischial spine sign, and a positive posterior wall sign. Which type of femoroacetabular impingement (FAI) is most strongly suggested by these findings?

An AP pelvis radiograph of a 25-year-old man with groin pain reveals the anterior wall of the acetabulum crossing over the posterior wall before reaching the lateral sourcil. What underlying pathomorphology does this crossover sign indicate?

Cam-type femoroacetabular impingement (FAI) is most commonly characterized by abnormal bone morphology in which specific region of the proximal femur?

On an anteroposterior radiograph of the pelvis, the 'cross-over sign' is indicative of which acetabular morphology?

A 45-year-old female undergoes an MRI of her shoulder for suspected rotator cuff pathology. An incidental lesion is found in the proximal humerus, corresponding to punctate calcifications seen on plain radiographs. MRI shows a lobulated high T2 signal lesion with no endosteal scalloping or cortical breakthrough.

What is the most appropriate management for this bone lesion?

A 19-year-old athlete undergoes evaluation for recurrent anterior shoulder instability. Advanced imaging reveals an anterior glenoid bone loss of 28%. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

A 22-year-old collegiate football player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations. Advanced imaging demonstrates a bony Bankart lesion with 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which surgical procedure is most appropriate to prevent further instability?

In the Woodward procedure for surgical correction of Sprengel's deformity, the scapula is mobilized and translated inferiorly. Which muscular origins are detached from the spinous processes to facilitate this maneuver?

A 14-year-old girl with an acute-on-chronic slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE) undergoes an urgent modified Dunn procedure (surgical dislocation and anatomic reduction). What is the primary advantage of the modified Dunn procedure over traditional closed reduction and percutaneous pinning?

A patient presents with profound weakness in external rotation and isolated atrophy of the infraspinous fossa, as seen in the clinical photograph. The supraspinous fossa has normal muscle bulk. Entrapment of the suprascapular nerve is most likely occurring at which of the following anatomic locations?

A 32-year-old volleyball player presents with profound weakness in external rotation of the shoulder. Examination reveals isolated atrophy of the infraspinous fossa, with normal supraspinatus muscle bulk. An MRI is shown. The compressive lesion responsible for this presentation is most likely located at which of the following anatomic sites?

A patient presents with profound weakness in external rotation and atrophy of the infraspinous fossa, as shown in the clinical photograph. The supraspinous fossa has normal muscle bulk. This specific pattern of isolated infraspinatus involvement indicates nerve entrapment at which of the following anatomic locations?

A 22-year-old rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan demonstrates a 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following surgical interventions is most appropriate to prevent recurrent dislocation?

A 55-year-old male presents with chronic right shoulder pain and weakness with overhead activities. Physical examination reveals a positive Jobe's (empty can) test and weakness in active abduction. MRI confirms a full-thickness tear of the most commonly injured rotator cuff tendon. To which anatomical structure does this specific tendon normally insert?

A 55-year-old male carpenter presents with chronic right shoulder pain and weakness. Physical examination reveals a positive Jobe's (empty can) test and weakness in active shoulder abduction. MRI confirms a full-thickness tear of the most commonly injured rotator cuff tendon. Where does this specific tendon insert anatomically?

A 55-year-old male presents with chronic shoulder pain and weakness with overhead activities. MRI confirms a full-thickness tear of the most commonly injured rotator cuff tendon. Which of the following describes the primary biomechanical function and insertion site of this muscle?

A 55-year-old male presents with chronic shoulder pain and weakness with overhead activities. MRI confirms a full-thickness tear of the most commonly injured rotator cuff tendon. Which of the following physical examination findings is most likely to be positive in this patient?

A 55-year-old male presents with chronic right shoulder pain and weakness, particularly with overhead activities. Physical examination reveals a positive Jobe's (empty can) test. MRI confirms a full-thickness tear of the most commonly injured rotator cuff tendon. Where does this specific tendon anatomically insert?

A 22-year-old elite baseball pitcher presents with posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. Examination reveals a significant glenohumeral internal rotation deficit (GIRD). MRI arthrogram shows a partial articular-sided supraspinatus tendon tear and posterosuperior labral fraying. This pathoanatomy is primarily driven by contracture of which capsular structure?