Shoulder & Hip Sports MCQs

A 12-year-old elite baseball pitcher complains of vague right shoulder pain that worsens during pitching. Radiographs demonstrate widening, demineralization, and sclerosis of the proximal humeral physis on the dominant arm. What is the most appropriate initial management?

A 28-year-old hockey player complains of insidious onset anterior groin pain exacerbated by hip flexion and internal rotation. Figure 11 shows a lateral radiograph demonstrating an abnormal alpha angle. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 24-year-old professional hockey player presents with insidious onset groin pain exacerbated by hip flexion and internal rotation. Radiographs demonstrate an alpha angle of 68 degrees on the Dunn lateral view.

Which pathophysiologic mechanism is most responsible for his symptoms?

Figure 1 shows an AP pelvis radiograph of a 30-year-old man complaining of deep groin pain. An alpha angle of 65 degrees is measured on the lateral view. Which physical exam maneuver is most likely to reproduce this patient's pain?

A 28-year-old male presents with chronic groin pain exacerbated by hip flexion and internal rotation. Imaging demonstrates a decreased anterior head-neck offset with a prominent alpha angle.

What is the primary pathomechanism of labral injury in this condition?

Which of the following radiographic findings is most characteristic of Pincer-type femoroacetabular impingement?

A 25-year-old male athlete presents with deep groin pain worsened by hip flexion and internal rotation. A cross-table lateral radiograph demonstrates an alpha angle of 65 degrees. What is the primary pathomechanical process occurring in this patient's hip?

A 42-year-old man presents with deep groin pain worsened by deep hip flexion and internal rotation. AP pelvis radiograph demonstrates a prominent crossover sign and a lateral center edge angle of 45 degrees. Alpha angle is 45 degrees. Which of the following best describes the pathomechanics of his condition?

Cam-type femoroacetabular impingement (FAI) is anatomically characterized by a reduced head-neck offset. During hip flexion, this morphology most commonly causes which of the following specific intra-articular injury patterns?

Which of the following radiographic findings is most characteristic of a pincer-type femoroacetabular impingement (FAI)?

A 24-year-old male hockey player presents with chronic groin pain exacerbated by hip flexion and internal rotation. Radiographs show an alpha angle of 70 degrees on the lateral view. The pathophysiologic mechanism of joint damage in this condition primarily involves:

A 25-year-old male presents with deep groin pain exacerbated by hip flexion and internal rotation. Radiographs reveal an alpha angle of 70 degrees, consistent with a cam lesion. Which of the following best describes the pathophysiology of joint damage in this condition?

A 35-year-old active male presents with symptoms of femoroacetabular impingement. Radiographs demonstrate an alpha angle of 75 degrees and decreased femoral head-neck offset. In this patient's pathomorphology, what is the most common pattern of intra-articular damage?

A 45-year-old man presents to the emergency department after a first-time seizure. He is unable to externally rotate his right arm. Radiographs reveal a posterior shoulder dislocation with an anteromedial humeral head defect involving 30% of the articular surface. Closed reduction is successful, but the shoulder remains unstable in internal rotation. What is the most appropriate definitive management?

A 32-year-old professional volleyball player presents with posterior shoulder pain and weakness in external rotation. Forward elevation and internal rotation strength are normal. MRI demonstrates an isolated paralabral cyst at the spinoglenoid notch. Which physical examination finding is most likely present?

A 22-year-old rugby player has recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations. CT scan with 3D reconstruction reveals 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. A Latarjet procedure is performed. Which of the following structures creates the 'sling effect' stabilizing the shoulder in abduction and external rotation after this procedure?

A 21-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher complains of posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. He has a positive posterior impingement sign and GIRD (glenohumeral internal rotation deficit) of 25 degrees. What is the primary pathophysiologic mechanism of this condition?

A 55-year-old active manual laborer presents with chronic shoulder pain and weakness. MRI demonstrates a massive, retracted, and irreparable tear of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus with advanced fatty infiltration (Goutallier stage 4). The subscapularis and teres minor are completely intact. He has a positive external rotation lag sign. Which of the following surgical interventions is most appropriate?

A 40-year-old man undergoes shoulder arthroscopy for chronic anterior shoulder pain. Intraoperatively, the long head of the biceps tendon is found to be medially subluxated out of the bicipital groove. This finding is most strongly associated with a tear of which of the following structures?

A 21-year-old rugby player undergoes a Latarjet procedure for recurrent anterior shoulder instability with 25% glenoid bone loss. Postoperatively, he exhibits profound weakness in elbow flexion and supination, along with sensory loss over the lateral forearm. Which nerve was most likely injured during the procedure?