This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in Shoulder & Hip Sports. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 2021
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 28-year-old male hockey player presents with insidious onset groin pain. Radiographs demonstrate a pistol-grip deformity and an alpha angle of 65 degrees. What is the primary pathoanatomy in this condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Aspherical femoral head-neck junction abutting the acetabular rim
Explanation
An increased alpha angle (>55 degrees) and pistol-grip deformity indicate Cam-type femoroacetabular impingement (FAI). This is characterized by an aspherical femoral head-neck junction that impinges against the anterosuperior acetabular rim during hip flexion.
Question 2022
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 26-year-old professional baseball pitcher complains of vague posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. Physical examination reveals a loss of 25 degrees of internal rotation compared to the non-throwing shoulder, with a positive O'Brien test. What is the initial recommended treatment for this condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Sleeper stretch program focusing on posterior capsular stretching
Explanation
The patient presents with Glenohumeral Internal Rotation Deficit (GIRD) and possible internal impingement. The initial management for GIRD in overhead athletes is a supervised posterior capsular stretching program, such as sleeper stretches.
Question 2023
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 20-year-old collegiate rugby player sustains an anterior shoulder dislocation. After reduction, a CT scan shows a glenoid bone loss of 25%. He is indicated for a Latarjet procedure. The primary stabilizing mechanism of the Latarjet procedure in this setting is:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The conjoint tendon acting as a sling across the anterior capsule when the arm is abducted and externally rotated
Explanation
The primary stabilizing mechanism of the Latarjet procedure is the 'sling effect' of the conjoint tendon compressing the anteroinferior capsule during abduction and external rotation. The osseous expansion plays a secondary role.
Question 2024
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 21-year-old collegiate rugby player with a history of recurrent anterior shoulder instability presents for surgical evaluation. A 3D CT scan reveals 26% anterior glenoid bone loss. What is the most appropriate surgical management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Open Latarjet procedure
Explanation
In collision athletes with critical anterior glenoid bone loss (typically greater than 20-25%), isolated soft-tissue repair has an unacceptably high failure rate. The Latarjet procedure (coracoid transfer) is required to restore the bony arc and provide a dynamic sling effect.
Question 2025
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 22-year-old rugby player with recurrent anterior shoulder instability and 25% glenoid bone loss undergoes a Latarjet procedure. Which nerve is at greatest risk of iatrogenic injury during the coracoid preparation and transfer?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Musculocutaneous nerve
Explanation
The musculocutaneous nerve enters the coracobrachialis 5 to 8 cm distal to the coracoid tip. It is highly susceptible to traction or direct injury during the mobilization and transfer of the conjoint tendon in a Latarjet procedure.
Question 2026
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 45-year-old man falls onto his outstretched arm and subsequently demonstrates weakness in internal rotation. Physical examination reveals a positive lift-off test and increased passive external rotation compared to the contralateral shoulder. Which structure is most likely injured?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Subscapularis tendon
Explanation
A positive lift-off test, weakness in internal rotation, and increased passive external rotation are classic clinical indicators of a subscapularis tendon tear.
Question 2027
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 22-year-old male rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan of the shoulder reveals an anterior glenoid bone loss of 25% with an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. What is the most appropriate surgical management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Coracoid process transfer (Latarjet procedure)
Explanation
For anterior glenoid bone loss exceeding 20-25%, isolated soft tissue repairs (Bankart) have a high failure rate. A bony augmentation procedure, such as the Latarjet (coracoid transfer), is indicated to restore glenoid articular arc and provide a sling effect.
Question 2028
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 25-year-old ice hockey player presents with chronic, deep groin pain exacerbated by hip flexion and internal rotation. An AP pelvis radiograph demonstrates a "crossover sign." This radiographic finding is indicative of which of the following pathomorphologies?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Pincer impingement secondary to acetabular retroversion
Explanation
The crossover sign on an AP pelvis radiograph occurs when the anterior wall of the acetabulum projects lateral to the posterior wall. This indicates acetabular retroversion, a common cause of focal pincer femoroacetabular impingement (FAI).
Question 2029
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 22-year-old rugby player with recurrent anterior shoulder instability is found to have 25% anterior glenoid bone loss on a 3D CT scan. A Latarjet procedure is planned. What is the primary stabilizing mechanism of this surgical procedure?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The conjoined tendon acting as a sling across the anteroinferior capsule when the arm is abducted and externally rotated.
Explanation
The Latarjet procedure provides stability through three mechanisms, known as the triple effect. The most significant of these is the sling effect of the conjoined tendon reinforcing the lower subscapularis and anteroinferior capsule during abduction and external rotation.
Question 2030
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 29-year-old elite volleyball player complains of vague posterior shoulder pain and serving weakness. Physical examination demonstrates isolated atrophy and weakness of the infraspinatus with a normal-appearing supraspinatus. At which anatomic location is nerve compression most likely occurring?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Spinoglenoid notch.
Explanation
Compression of the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch affects only the infraspinatus muscle. In contrast, compression more proximally at the suprascapular notch will affect both the supraspinatus and the infraspinatus.
Question 2031
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 22-year-old ice hockey player has chronic groin pain exacerbated by hip flexion and internal rotation. Radiographs reveal a bony prominence at the anterolateral head-neck junction. Which radiographic parameter is specifically used to quantify this cam-type impingement deformity?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Alpha angle.
Explanation
The alpha angle is measured on lateral hip radiographs or axial MRI/CT to evaluate the sphericity of the femoral head-neck junction. An alpha angle greater than 50 to 55 degrees is indicative of cam-type femoroacetabular impingement (FAI).
Question 2032
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 45-year-old recreational weightlifter presents with deep-seated shoulder pain exacerbated by bench press and overhead activities. Examination reveals a positive O'Brien test and tenderness in the bicipital groove. MRI arthrography demonstrates a type II SLAP tear. After failing 6 months of targeted physical therapy, which surgical intervention provides the most reliable return to sport while minimizing postoperative stiffness in this patient?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Subpectoral biceps tenodesis
Explanation
In active patients older than 35 to 40 years, primary biceps tenodesis for symptomatic type II SLAP tears provides superior clinical outcomes, higher return-to-sport rates, and fewer complications than primary repair. SLAP repair in this older demographic is associated with a significantly higher risk of persistent postoperative stiffness and the need for revision surgery.
Question 2033
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 23-year-old rugby player has recurrent anterior shoulder instability. CT scan shows an off-track Hill-Sachs lesion and 15% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following procedures is most appropriate?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Arthroscopic Bankart repair with Remplissage
Explanation
For a patient with subcritical glenoid bone loss (<20%) but an engaging or "off-track" Hill-Sachs lesion, arthroscopic Bankart repair combined with a Remplissage procedure effectively prevents the Hill-Sachs lesion from engaging the anterior glenoid rim. Latarjet is typically reserved for critical glenoid bone loss (>20%).
Question 2034
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 21-year-old collegiate rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan demonstrates 28% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following surgical interventions provides the most reliable long-term stability for this patient?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Coracoid transfer to the anterior glenoid (Latarjet)
Explanation
In the setting of critical glenoid bone loss (>20-25%), soft tissue stabilization (Bankart repair) has an unacceptably high failure rate. The Latarjet procedure (coracoid transfer) restores the bony arc and provides a sling effect via the conjoint tendon.
Question 2035
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 45-year-old active laborer presents with chronic, severe shoulder weakness. MRI demonstrates a massive, retracted, and fatty-infiltrated tear of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus tendons. The subscapularis and teres minor are intact. He has a normal coracoacromial arch and no significant glenohumeral arthritis. Which tendon transfer is most appropriate to restore external rotation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lower trapezius transfer
Explanation
For isolated irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tears, a lower trapezius transfer closely mimics the line of pull of the infraspinatus to restore external rotation. Latissimus dorsi transfer is also an option but has a less anatomic line of pull.
Question 2036
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 22-year-old competitive rugby player sustains his third anterior shoulder dislocation. CT scan with 3D reconstruction demonstrates 25% glenoid bone loss. A Latarjet procedure is performed. The classic "sling effect" of the Latarjet procedure is provided by which of the following structures?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Conjoint tendon and lower subscapularis
Explanation
The Latarjet procedure provides stability via the bone block, the capsular repair, and the "sling effect" of the conjoint tendon compressing the inferior subscapularis and capsule when the arm is abducted and externally rotated.
Question 2037
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 19-year-old female gymnast presents with recurrent bilateral shoulder pain and subluxation associated with generalized ligamentous laxity. After 6 months of dedicated physical therapy, she continues to have disabling instability in her dominant shoulder. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Arthroscopic capsular plication
Explanation
Arthroscopic capsular plication is the surgical treatment of choice for multidirectional instability that fails a prolonged course of physical therapy. It effectively reduces capsular redundancy without the morbidity of open shifts.
Question 2038
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 20-year-old female dancer complains of an audible, painless snapping on the lateral aspect of her hip when she flexes and extends it. Ultrasound demonstrates a thick band of tissue snapping over the greater trochanter. What is the initial treatment of choice?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Formal physical therapy focusing on stretching the iliotibial band
Explanation
External snapping hip syndrome is caused by the iliotibial band snapping over the greater trochanter. It is initially managed non-operatively with stretching, core strengthening, and activity modification.
Question 2039
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 21-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher presents with a 5-mph decrease in throwing velocity and posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase. Examination reveals a Glenohumeral Internal Rotation Deficit (GIRD) of 25 degrees compared to the contralateral shoulder, but a symmetric total arc of motion. What is the most appropriate initial management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Targeted posterior capsular stretching program (e.g., sleeper stretches)
Explanation
GIRD in throwers is characterized by a loss of internal rotation with a preserved total arc of motion, typically caused by a contracted posteroinferior capsule. The initial and most effective management is a targeted physical therapy program utilizing posterior capsular stretching, which resolves symptoms in the vast majority of cases.
Question 2040
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 25-year-old ice hockey player presents with chronic groin pain exacerbated by hip flexion and internal rotation. Radiographs demonstrate an alpha angle of 72 degrees on the Dunn view. Which of the following accurately describes the pathophysiology of his condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. An aspherical femoral head-neck junction creates shear forces, leading to anterosuperior labral tearing and chondral delamination.
Explanation
An elevated alpha angle (>55 degrees) is diagnostic of a Cam deformity, characterized by an aspherical femoral head-neck junction. During hip flexion, this prominence enters the joint, creating shear stresses that predictably cause anterosuperior labral tears and adjacent acetabular cartilage delamination.
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