This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in Knee Sports. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 301
Topic: Knee Sports
The integrity of the posterior root of the medial meniscus is critical because its avulsion effectively leads to:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Extrusion of the medial meniscus and increased contact pressure on the medial compartment.
Explanation
Correct Answer: CThe posterior root attachment of the medial meniscus is essential for anchoring the meniscus and maintaining its circumferential integrity. An avulsion of this root disrupts the 'hoop stress' mechanism, leading to significant medial meniscal extrusion from the joint line. This extrusion effectively renders the meniscus dysfunctional, markedly increasing contact pressures on the medial tibial cartilage, similar to a total meniscectomy, and accelerating osteoarthritic changes.
Question 302
Topic: Knee Sports
A 26-year-old rugby player presents after an awkward fall onto his left knee. Radiographs and MRI, as shown in the provided image, reveal cortical disruption at the PCL insertion with a displaced avulsed fragment. What is the most appropriate initial surgical management for this specific injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Open reattachment of the PCL avulsion fragment.
Explanation
Correct Answer: CThe case explicitly states the candidate's proposed treatment for this patient: "I would offer this patient reattachment of the PCL avulsion through open procedure." This indicates that for a displaced PCL avulsion, direct open reattachment of the bone fragment is the preferred surgical approach. Non-operative management is typically reserved for non-displaced or minimally displaced avulsions. Arthroscopic PCL reconstruction with allograft or PCL repair is generally indicated for mid-substance tears or chronic instability, not acute bony avulsions where direct reattachment is feasible. Staged procedures or debridement are not the primary initial management for a displaced bony avulsion.
Question 303
Topic: Knee Sports
During a single-bundle ACL reconstruction on a right knee, the examiner emphasizes the importance of anatomical and isometric tunnel placement. Based on the principles discussed in the case, what is the optimal clock face position for the femoral tunnel to replace the posterolateral bundle?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 10 to 10:30 o'clock
Explanation
Correct Answer: CThe case explicitly states, "For the femoral tunnel the isometric point lies at about 10 to 10.30 o’clock for right knee and 1.30 to 2 for left knee." The aim in single-bundle reconstruction is to place the tunnel at the footprint of the posterolateral bundle of the ACL, which is considered important to replace. Therefore, 10 to 10:30 o'clock is the optimal position for a right knee.
Question 304
Topic: Knee Sports
A surgeon performing a single-bundle ACL reconstruction places the femoral tunnel too anteriorly, on the "resident's ridge." According to the case discussion, what is the most likely clinical consequence of this technical error?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Restriction of knee flexion.
Explanation
Correct Answer: CThe case clearly states, "The most common mistake is to place femoral tunnel too anterior or ‘resident’s ridge’. This restricts flexion of the knee and may result in elongation of graft." Conversely, too posterior tunnel placement results in excessive tightening of the graft when the knee is extended. Therefore, an anterior femoral tunnel leads to a restriction of knee flexion.
Question 305
Topic: Knee Sports
During an arthroscopic ACL reconstruction, after careful assessment, the surgeon notes that abnormally narrow intercondylar notch correlates with increased incidence of ACL tears. If impingement on the lateral femoral condyle is identified despite correct tunnel placement, what additional surgical step is indicated according to the case?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Notchplasty of the anterior portion of the lateral femoral condyle.
Explanation
Correct Answer: CThe case explicitly addresses this scenario: "Careful assessment of notch should be done prior to graft insertion using a pin to ensure no impingement on lateral femoral condyle. The presence of impingement with correct placement of tunnels necessitates notchplasty of the anterior portion of lateral femoral condyle." This procedure aims to widen the notch to prevent graft impingement, which can lead to graft failure.
Question 306
Topic: Knee Sports
A 21-year-old female soccer player undergoes primary anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction. During the healing process, the graft requires a robust blood supply to properly undergo ligamentization. What is the primary arterial supply to the native ACL?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Middle geniculate artery
Explanation
The primary blood supply to the anterior cruciate ligament is the middle geniculate artery. It pierces the posterior capsule to supply the cruciate ligaments and synovial fold.
Question 307
Topic: Knee Sports
A 19-year-old male presents to the emergency department after a twisting injury to his knee while skiing. MRI confirms an acute, isolated rupture of the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL). Which of the following meniscal injuries is statistically most likely to be associated with this acute tear?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lateral meniscus tear
Explanation
In the setting of an acute ACL rupture, lateral meniscus tears are the most common associated meniscal injury. Medial meniscus tears become more common in chronic, ACL-deficient knees due to altered kinematics.
Question 308
Topic: Knee Sports
A 17-year-old female presents with recurrent lateral patellar dislocations. An MPFL (medial patellofemoral ligament) reconstruction is planned. To ensure isometric graft function, the femoral tunnel must be placed at Schottle's point. Where is this point located radiographically?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Proximal and posterior to the medial epicondyle, distal to the adductor tubercle
Explanation
Schottle's point is the anatomic and radiographic origin of the MPFL on the femur. It is located just proximal and posterior to the medial epicondyle, and just distal to the adductor tubercle.
Question 309
Topic: Knee Sports
A patient presents with posterolateral knee pain and instability after a hyperextension injury. On physical examination, the dial test shows 15 degrees of increased external rotation at 30 degrees of knee flexion compared to the contralateral side, but symmetric rotation at 90 degrees of flexion. Which structure is most likely injured?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Isolated posterolateral corner (PLC)
Explanation
A positive dial test (>10 degrees asymmetry) at 30 degrees of flexion only indicates an isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury. If the dial test is positive at both 30 and 90 degrees, it indicates a combined PLC and PCL injury.
Question 310
Topic: Knee Sports
A 55-year-old female undergoes MRI of the knee showing a complete radial tear adjacent to the posterior root attachment of the medial meniscus. If left untreated, the biomechanical consequence of this specific tear is most equivalent to which of the following?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Total medial meniscectomy
Explanation
A posterior root tear of the medial meniscus disrupts the hoop stresses, allowing the meniscus to extrude. Biomechanically, this results in increased peak contact pressures equivalent to a total medial meniscectomy, leading to rapid chondrolysis.
Question 311
Topic: Knee Sports
A 16-year-old female requires medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) reconstruction for recurrent lateral patellar dislocations. Intraoperative fluoroscopy is used to determine the anatomic femoral attachment of the MPFL (Schottle's point). Where is this point located radiographically?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior to the posterior femoral cortex line, proximal to Blumensaat's line
Explanation
Schottle's point is an anatomic radiographic landmark for the femoral origin of the MPFL. It is located 1 mm anterior to the posterior cortex line, 2.5 mm distal to the posterior origin of the medial femoral condyle, and proximal to Blumensaat's line.
Question 312
Topic: Knee Sports
A 25-year-old athlete sustains a direct blow to the anteromedial tibia. Examination reveals 15 degrees of increased external rotation of the tibia compared to the contralateral side at both 30 degrees and 90 degrees of knee flexion. Which of the following injury patterns is most likely present?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury
Explanation
The dial test evaluates external rotation of the tibia. Increased external rotation at 30 degrees only suggests an isolated PLC injury, while increased external rotation at both 30 and 90 degrees indicates a combined PLC and PCL injury.
Question 313
Topic: Knee Sports
During reconstruction of the medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) for recurrent patellar instability, the femoral attachment must be anatomically placed to avoid altering joint kinematics. Where is the native femoral origin of the MPFL located?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Proximal and posterior to the medial epicondyle
Explanation
The native femoral footprint of the MPFL (Schottle's point) is located proximal and posterior to the medial epicondyle, just distal to the adductor tubercle. Non-anatomic placement can lead to stiffness or recurrent instability.
Question 314
Topic: Knee Sports
An 18-year-old skier sustains a twisting injury to the knee. An AP radiograph demonstrates a small vertical avulsion fracture of the lateral tibial plateau. Which of the following intra-articular injuries is most highly associated with this radiographic finding?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear
Explanation
A Segond fracture is a bony avulsion of the anterolateral ligament complex from the lateral tibial plateau. It is considered pathognomonic for an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear.
Question 315
Topic: Knee Sports
A 9-year-old boy (Tanner stage 1) sustains a complete anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear. He experiences recurrent instability despite bracing and physical therapy. What is the most appropriate surgical option?
In a skeletal immature patient with significant growth remaining (Tanner stage 1), transphyseal drilling risks growth arrest and angular deformity. A physeal-sparing reconstruction utilizing the iliotibial band is indicated for recurrent instability.
Question 316
Topic: Knee Sports
A surgeon is performing an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction using a soft tissue graft. Which type of screw is most commonly used for femoral or tibial fixation of the graft and why?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Bioabsorbable interference screws, to provide rigid fixation and avoid permanent implant.
Explanation
Correct Answer: CBioabsorbable interference screws are the most common choice for ACL graft fixation (both femoral and tibial tunnels) when using a soft tissue graft. They provide excellent interference fit and rigid primary fixation, compressing the graft against the tunnel wall. The advantage of bioabsorbability is that it avoids a permanent implant, which can be beneficial in case of revision surgery or future imaging. While other screw types could theoretically be used, interference screws are specifically designed for this application to achieve strong primary fixation and are often made from bioabsorbable materials like PLLA, PLDLA, or TCP composites.
Question 317
Topic: Knee Sports
A 21-year-old football player sustains a non-contact pivoting injury to his knee. MRI reveals an isolated complete tear of the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL). When planning an anatomic reconstruction, the surgeon must identify the native femoral footprint of the ACL. Where is this located?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Medial aspect of the lateral femoral condyle
Explanation
The anterior cruciate ligament originates on the medial aspect of the lateral femoral condyle and inserts on the anterior intercondylar area of the tibia. Accurate placement of the femoral tunnel is critical for successful anatomic reconstruction.
Question 318
Topic: Knee Sports
A 35-year-old collegiate football player sustains a knee injury during a game, characterized by a direct blow to the proximal tibia with the knee flexed, resulting in a posterior knee dislocation (Schenck KD II). After successful reduction, the knee demonstrates significant posterior sag and a positive posterior drawer test. Additionally, a varus stress test at 30 degrees of flexion reveals significant laxity, and a positive dial test at 30 and 90 degrees of flexion is noted. Based on this clinical presentation, which of the following structures is MOST likely to be involved in addition to the PCL?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterolateral corner (PLC)
Explanation
Correct Answer: DThe clinical presentation describes a posterior knee dislocation (KD II), which classically involves PCL rupture, consistent with the posterior sag and positive posterior drawer test. The additional findings of significant varus laxity at 30 degrees of flexion and a positive dial test at both 30 and 90 degrees of flexion are pathognomonic for a posterolateral corner (PLC) injury. The dial test assesses external rotation of the tibia relative to the femur, with increased external rotation at 30 degrees indicating an isolated PLC injury, and increased external rotation at both 30 and 90 degrees indicating a combined PLC and PCL injury. The case emphasizes that the PLC is a complex of structures crucial for varus and external rotation stability, and its unrecognized or inadequately treated injury is a leading cause of persistent instability.Option A (MCL) is incorrect. MCL injury would present with valgus instability, not varus instability.Option B (ACL) is incorrect. While ACL injury can occur with KD, the specific findings of varus laxity and a positive dial test point more directly to PLC involvement in this scenario, especially with a posterior dislocation.Option C (PMC) is incorrect. PMC injury contributes to valgus and internal rotation stability, not varus and external rotation instability.Option E (Quadriceps tendon) is a dynamic stabilizer and its injury would typically present as an extensor mechanism disruption, not the specific instability patterns described.
Question 319
Topic: Knee Sports
During a multi-ligament knee reconstruction for a chronic posterior knee dislocation, the surgeon is performing a PCL reconstruction using an allograft. To ensure proper graft tensioning and prevent posterior sag, at what knee position and with what maneuver should the PCL graft be tensioned?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 90 degrees of flexion with an anterior drawer applied.
Explanation
Correct Answer: CThe case explicitly states the correct tensioning protocol for PCL reconstruction: 'Tensioning: Tension at 90 degrees of knee flexion with an anterior drawer applied to neutralizes the posterior sag.' This maneuver helps to restore the normal posterior stability of the knee by counteracting the tendency for posterior tibial translation, which is the primary function of the PCL.Option A (Full extension with a valgus stress) is incorrect. This position and maneuver are not specific for PCL tensioning and would primarily stress the MCL.Option B (30 degrees of flexion with neutral rotation) is the typical position for tensioning an ACL graft, not the PCL.Option D (Full flexion with a posterior drawer applied) would actually increase posterior sag and potentially over-tension the graft in an incorrect position, leading to stiffness or failure.Option E (15 degrees of flexion with a varus stress) is incorrect. This position and maneuver are not specific for PCL tensioning and would primarily stress the LCL/PLC.
Question 320
Topic: Knee Sports
A 38-year-old recreational athlete is undergoing rehabilitation after a multi-ligament knee reconstruction, including a PCL reconstruction. During the initial maximum protection phase (weeks 0-6), which of the following exercises or activities should be MOST strictly avoided to protect the PCL graft?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Gentle hamstring sets with active knee flexion beyond 45 degrees.
Explanation
Correct Answer: CThe case specifically highlights precautions for PCL reconstruction during rehabilitation: 'PCL Specific: Avoid isolated hamstring strengthening and excessive knee flexion (>90 degrees) during the initial weeks to protect the posterior graft. No active knee flexion beyond 45 degrees.' Active knee flexion, especially against resistance or beyond 45 degrees, can generate posterior shear forces on the tibia, which directly stresses the healing PCL graft and risks failure. Therefore, avoiding this is crucial.Option A (PROM 0-90 degrees) is generally encouraged for cruciate ligaments to prevent arthrofibrosis, as long as it's controlled and within comfortable limits.Option B (Quadriceps sets and SLR) are typically safe and encouraged early on to maintain muscle tone and prevent atrophy, as they primarily generate anterior shear forces, which are protective for the PCL.Option D (TDWB with crutches) is a common weight-bearing progression in the initial phase, though for PLC reconstructions, NWB/TDWB may be extended. It's not the most strictly avoided activity for PCL specifically.Option E (Cryotherapy and elevation) are standard post-operative measures to control pain and swelling and are always encouraged.
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