This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee). Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 161
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
During a total hip arthroplasty using a posterolateral approach, the surgeon identifies and protects the sciatic nerve. Which of the following is the most frequent cause of sciatic nerve palsy following a primary total hip arthroplasty?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Excessive limb lengthening
Explanation
Nerve stretching due to excessive limb lengthening (typically > 4 cm) is the most common cause of sciatic nerve palsy after THA. The peroneal division of the sciatic nerve is particularly susceptible due to its anatomical fixation at the fibular head.
Question 162
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
When performing a total knee arthroplasty, the surgeon notices that the knee is tight in flexion but well-balanced in extension. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical step to correct this mismatch?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Downsize the femoral component
Explanation
A knee that is tight in flexion but balanced in extension has a tight flexion gap. Downsizing the femoral component (with anterior referencing) decreases the posterior femoral offset, effectively increasing the flexion gap without altering the extension gap.
Question 163
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
In the workup for a suspected periprosthetic joint infection (PJI) of the knee, synovial fluid analysis reveals a highly elevated alpha-defensin level. What is the biological source of alpha-defensin in this context?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Neutrophils
Explanation
Alpha-defensins are antimicrobial peptides released primarily by neutrophils in response to an infectious pathogen. They have demonstrated excellent sensitivity and specificity as a synovial fluid biomarker for diagnosing periprosthetic joint infections.
Question 164
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 55-year-old active male underwent a total hip arthroplasty with a ceramic-on-ceramic bearing surface two years ago. He now complains of a squeaking noise from the hip during deep flexion, without pain. Radiographs show a well-fixed implant with the acetabular component in 55 degrees of inclination and 25 degrees of anteversion. What is the most likely cause of the squeaking?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Edge loading due to component malpositioning
Explanation
Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic THA is most commonly associated with edge loading. This typically occurs when the acetabular cup is placed in excessive inclination or anteversion, leading to stripe wear on the ceramic head.
Question 165
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Clinical improvement following ankle distraction arthroplasty:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. C an take up to 5 years to reach maximal improvement
Explanation
Distraction arthroplasty with an Ilizarov external fixator is usually associated with half of the clinical improvement occurring within the first year, and the other half happening over the next 5 years.
Question 166
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
First metatarsophalangeal prosthetic joint replacements:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Provide less pain relief than first metatarsophalangeal arthrodesis
Explanation
First metatarsophalangeal joint replacement in this prospective comparative study performed poorly compared to arthrodesis. Patients with arthroplasties had greater pain and little improvement in range of motion.
Question 167
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
In a randomized controlled trial comparing first metatarsophalangeal arthrodesis versus total joint replacement arthroplasty for end-stage hallux rigidus, all of the following statements are true except:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Fusion had a lower complication rate than arthroplasty.
Explanation
In the study by Gibson and Thomson, 38 fusions and 39 arthroplasties were prospectively compared at 2-year follow-up. There was an 82% improvement in the arthrodesis group and only a 45% improvement in the arthroplasty group. Fusion also had lower complication rates and lower cost. There was not a significant increase in first metatarsophalangeal joint dorsiflexion between preoperative and postoperative levels following total joint replacement.
Question 168
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
When comparing complication rates following operative and nonoperative management of ankle fractures in the elderly (age 65- 99):
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Operatively managed patients have a lower mortality rate but a higher rehospitalization rate than conservatively managed patients.
Explanation
A study using the National Medicare C laims History System was performed looking at outcomes following ankle fracture in 33,704 elderly patients, specifically looking at mortality, rehospitalization, and the need for additional surgery. Researchers found that conservatively managed patients had a higher mortality rate up to 2 years following injury compared to patients who underwent open reduction internal fixation. Operatively treated patients had a higher rate of rehospitalization following their injury. Less than 1% of patients required revision of internal fixation, arthroplasty, arthrodesis, or amputation.
Question 169
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Following a total hip arthroplasty utilizing a posterior approach, a patient is noted to have a sciatic nerve palsy. Which component of the sciatic nerve is most commonly injured, and what is the characteristic motor deficit?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Peroneal division; loss of dorsiflexion
Explanation
The peroneal division of the sciatic nerve is tethered at the fibular head and has less supportive connective tissue, making it more susceptible to stretch injuries during hip surgery. Injury results in foot drop (loss of dorsiflexion).
Question 170
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
During a total knee arthroplasty, internally rotating the femoral component relative to the epicondylar axis will most likely result in which of the following mechanical issues?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Patellar maltracking and lateral subluxation
Explanation
Internal rotation of the femoral component medializes the trochlear groove, effectively increasing the Q-angle dynamically. This leads to lateral patellar tracking, tilt, and potential lateral subluxation.
Question 171
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 65-year-old female presents with persistent groin pain 1 year after an uncemented total hip arthroplasty. Radiographs reveal a radiolucent line involving all three DeLee and Charnley zones of the acetabulum with superior migration of the cup. What is the most appropriate management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Revision of the acetabular component
Explanation
Circumferential radiolucent lines in all three DeLee and Charnley zones coupled with component migration indicate definitive aseptic loosening of the acetabular cup. The standard treatment is revision arthroplasty of the failed component.
Question 172
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
During a primary total knee arthroplasty, the surgeon notices that the knee is tight in flexion but stable and balanced in extension. Which of the following surgical adjustments should be made to correct this gap imbalance?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Downsize the femoral component
Explanation
A knee that is tight in flexion but balanced in extension indicates an isolated tight flexion gap. This is typically addressed by downsizing the femoral component, which decreases the anteroposterior dimension of the femur.
Question 173
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 65-year-old male presents with groin pain and an enlarging soft tissue mass 5 years after a primary total hip arthroplasty utilizing a metal-on-polyethylene bearing with a large diameter modular metal head. Aspiration yields sterile, cloudy fluid. MRI demonstrates an adverse local tissue reaction (ALTR). What is the most likely etiology?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Trunnionosis
Explanation
Trunnionosis, or mechanically assisted crevice corrosion at the head-neck junction, can lead to adverse local tissue reactions (ALTR) even with metal-on-polyethylene bearings. Risk factors include the use of large diameter modular metal heads, which increase the torque and micromotion at the trunnion.
Question 174
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Displaced talar neck fractures should be treated:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. There is no correlation between emergent or urgent fixation of talar neck fractures and risk of talar avascular necrosis.
Explanation
A retrospective review of 102 talar neck fractures that underwent open reduction internal fixation showed no decrease in the development of osteonecrosis in fractures that were treated earlier. The mean time to fixation was 3.4 days for patients who had development of osteonecrosis, compared with 5 days for patients who did not have development of osteonecrosis.
Question 175
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
C linical improvement following ankle distraction arthroplasty:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. C an take up to 5 years to reach maximal improvement
Explanation
Distraction arthroplasty with an Ilizarov external fixator is usually associated with half of the clinical improvement occurring within the first year, and the other half happening over the next 5 years.
Question 176
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
The most effective fixation technique that will ensure adequate visualization (imaging) of avascular necrosis changes following talar neck fracture is:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Fixation with titanium screws
Explanation
High-quality magnetic resonance images of the talus can consistently be obtained in the presence of titanium screws in contrast to images obtained with stainless steel implants. Magnetic resonance imaging is better than plain radiographs at assessing the volume of talar avascular necrosis.
Question 177
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
During a posterior-stabilized total knee arthroplasty, the surgeon notes that the knee is well-balanced in extension but tight in flexion. Which of the following maneuvers is the most appropriate next step to balance the knee?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Downsize the femoral component
Explanation
A knee that is balanced in extension but tight in flexion has an isolated tight flexion gap. Downsizing the femoral component translates the posterior femoral condyles anteriorly, thus enlarging the flexion gap without altering the extension gap.
Question 178
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
According to Lewinnek, what is the ideal acetabular cup position during a total hip arthroplasty to minimize the risk of postoperative dislocation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 40 degrees of abduction and 15 degrees of anteversion
Explanation
The Lewinnek safe zone for acetabular cup placement in total hip arthroplasty is defined as 40 degrees of abduction and 15 degrees of anteversion. Placement outside this zone has been classically associated with a significantly higher risk of postoperative dislocation.
Question 179
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
Which of the following factors most significantly increases the risk of "squeaking" in a ceramic-on-ceramic total hip arthroplasty?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Excessive acetabular cup anteversion
Explanation
Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic THA is highly associated with edge loading, which often results from a malpositioned acetabular component. Excessive cup anteversion or inclination disrupts the fluid film lubrication, leading to stripe wear and subsequent squeaking.
Question 180
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
During a primary total knee arthroplasty, the surgeon assesses the gaps with trial components. The extension gap is found to be symmetrically tight, while the flexion gap is well-balanced. What is the most appropriate next step to balance the knee?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Resect additional distal femur
Explanation
A tight extension gap with a balanced flexion gap indicates that the distal femoral cut is insufficient. Resecting more distal femur will increase the extension gap without affecting the flexion gap.
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