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Question 181

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 55-year-old active male underwent a total hip arthroplasty with a ceramic-on-ceramic bearing surface 3 years ago. He now complains of a high-pitched squeaking noise during activity. Which of the following factors is most strongly associated with this complication?

. Acetabular component retroversion
. Head size less than 28 mm
. Body mass index less than 25
. Femoral stem retroversion
. Edge loading of the ceramic bearings

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Edge loading of the ceramic bearings


Explanation

Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic total hip arthroplasty is highly associated with edge loading. This is often caused by acetabular cup malposition (such as excessive anteversion or steep inclination), leading to abnormal wear patterns and microseparation.

Question 182

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A patient had a fixed deformity of the hallux interphalangeal (IP) joint (Slide) for 3 years following forefoot surgery. She complains of pain over the distal aspect of the hallux where rubbing occurs on the shoe. On examination, the hallux is flexible at the metatarsophalangeal (MP) and IP joints, there is no crepitus of the MP joint, and radiographs demonstrate normal alignment of the first metatarsal. The recommended procedure for correcting this deformity is:

. Arthrodesis of the hallux MP joint
. Resection arthroplasty of the hallux MP joint
. Transfer of the extensor hallucis brevis tendon
. Arthrodesis of the hallux IP joint with transfer of the flexor hallucis longus tendon
. Lengthening of the abductor hallucis and repair of the lateral capsule and the flexor hallucis brevis tendon with a bone suture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Transfer of the extensor hallucis brevis tendon


Explanation

anchor Arthrodesis and resection arthroplasty of the hallux MP joint are indicated in the presence of arthritis of the hallux MP joint. A tendon transfer is preferred, and the extensor hallucis brevis tendon is an effective transfer. Use of the extensor hallucis longus tendon with arthrodesis of the hallux IP joint is indicated when there is a fixed deformity of the hallux IP joint.

Question 183

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A patient presents for treatment of a painful hallux. The pain is over the dorsal surface of the hallux metatarsophalangeal joint and is worsened with plantar flexion of the toe. The passive range of motion is 30° of dorsiflexion and 10° of plantarflexion. The radiographs confirm the presence of mild arthritis of the metatarsophalangeal joint, with dorsal osteophytes on the metatarsal head. Which of the following procedures is most likely to be associated with a long-term satisfactory outcome:
. Arthrodesis of the hallux metatarsophalangeal joint
. Soft tissue interposition arthroplasty
. Implant hemiarthroplasty
. Total joint arthroplasty
. Cheilectomy of the metatarsophalangeal joint

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cheilectomy of the metatarsophalangeal joint


Explanation

The pain present in plantarflexion is common and associated with friction of the capsule against the dorsal osteophytes. This patient has noted only mild arthritis of the metatarsophalangeal joint. An arthrodesis is not a necessary treatment, although it is a reasonable alternative. Implant and interposition arthroplasty are alternatives for the treatment of arthritis of the metatarsophalangeal joint but preferably only when the condition is advanced.

Question 184

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Which of the following bearing surface combinations in total hip arthroplasty historically demonstrates the lowest volumetric wear rate?

. Cobalt-chrome on highly cross-linked polyethylene
. Ceramic on highly cross-linked polyethylene
. Ceramic on ceramic
. Cobalt-chrome on conventional polyethylene
. Oxinium on highly cross-linked polyethylene

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ceramic on ceramic


Explanation

Ceramic-on-ceramic bearing surfaces demonstrate the lowest volumetric wear rates in total hip arthroplasty. This makes them a durable option for young, active patients, though they carry risks of squeaking and catastrophic fracture.

Question 185

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During a posterior-stabilized total knee arthroplasty, the surgeon notes that the knee is tight in flexion and well-balanced in extension. Which of the following maneuvers is most appropriate to balance the knee?

. Release the posterior cruciate ligament
. Upsize the femoral component
. Resect more distal femur
. Downsize the femoral component
. Release the posterior capsule

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Downsize the femoral component


Explanation

A tight flexion gap with a balanced extension gap requires reducing the anteroposterior dimension of the femur. Downsizing the femoral component (and optionally increasing the posterior tibial slope) addresses the tight flexion gap without altering extension.

Question 186

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 45-year-old highly active male is undergoing a total hip arthroplasty. To minimize wear rates and the risk of osteolysis, which of the following bearing surface combinations is most appropriate?

. Metal-on-conventional polyethylene
. Ceramic-on-ceramic
. Metal-on-metal
. Ceramic-on-conventional polyethylene

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ceramic-on-ceramic


Explanation

Ceramic-on-ceramic bearing surfaces offer the lowest volumetric wear rates among total hip arthroplasty options. They are highly suitable for young, active patients, despite a small risk of fracture or squeaking.

Question 187

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

One year following a posterior-stabilized total knee arthroplasty, a patient presents with a painful popping sensation when extending the knee from a flexed position. What is the most likely etiology?

. Polyethylene wear
. Aseptic loosening of the tibial component
. Fibrous nodule formation catching in the intercondylar notch
. Patellar component maltracking

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Fibrous nodule formation catching in the intercondylar notch


Explanation

Patellar clunk syndrome is a known complication of posterior-stabilized TKA designs. It occurs when a fibrous nodule forms on the undersurface of the quadriceps tendon and catches in the femoral component's box during extension.

Question 188

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 24-year-old man presents for treatment of a painful fifth toe deformity. He had the deformity for 10 years and notes that it is getting progressively worse. On examination, a claw toe deformity is present. There is 90° of fixed hyperextension of the metatarsophalangeal joint, 70° of flexion at the interphalangeal joint, and a painful corn on the distal tip of the phalanx. The patient would like surgical correction. Which procedure is most likely to give him relief of pain and correction of deformity:

. Flexor tenotomy and extensor tenotomy
. Dorsal capsulectomy, extensor lengthening, and flexor tenotomy
. Proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint resection arthroplasty
. PIP joint arthrodesis
. Subtotal proximal phalangectomy with tendon transfer

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Subtotal proximal phalangectomy with tendon transfer


Explanation

Correction of a fixed claw fifth toe deformity is not an easy procedure. The customary procedures used for correction of other lesser toe deformities are not always successful. In this patient, PIP arthroplasty or arthrodesis alone will not correct this deformity. The deformity requires a subtotal or complete proximal phalangectomy. Although this procedure corrects the deformity, patients must know that they will inevitably have a floppy fifth toe.

Question 189

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 56-year-old woman presents for evaluation and treatment of a painful hallux. She notes the pain over the dorsal surface of the hallux metatarsophalangeal (MP) joint and on the plantar aspect of the hallux interphalangeal (IP) joint. C linically, there is no range of motion in dorsiflexion of the hallux MP joint, pain upon attempted movement of the MP joint, and 20° of extension of the hallux IP joint. Radiographs demonstrate arthritis of the hallux MP joint and normal alignment of the first metatarsal. The surgical procedure that is likely to cause further mechanical problems for this patient is:

. Resection arthroplasty of the hallux MP joint
. C heilectomy of the hallux MP joint
. Interposition arthroplasty of the hallux MP joint
. Arthrodesis of the hallux MP joint
. Plantarflexion osteotomy of the first metatarsal

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthrodesis of the hallux MP joint


Explanation

This patient has end stage arthritis and rigidus of the hallux MP joint. Hyperextension of the IP joint is already present. If arthrodesis of the MP joint were performed, then further load and instability of the IP joint would occur.

Question 190

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 70-year-old female presents with recurrent posterior dislocations following a primary total hip arthroplasty. Radiographic evaluation shows the acetabular component is placed in 10 degrees of anteversion and 30 degrees of inclination. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

. Revise the acetabular component to increase anteversion
. Revise the acetabular component to decrease anteversion
. Revise the acetabular component to decrease inclination
. Prescribe a hip abduction orthosis
. Exchange the femoral head for a larger offset without cup revision

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Revise the acetabular component to increase anteversion


Explanation

The target safe zone for an acetabular component is typically 15-20 degrees of anteversion and 40-45 degrees of inclination. The cup is under-anteverted (retroverted relative to ideal), predisposing the patient to posterior dislocation, and requires revision to increase anteversion.

Question 191

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 30-year-old male sustains a completely displaced femoral neck fracture (Pauwels type III) following a fall from a height. He is neurovascularly intact. What is the most appropriate definitive treatment?
. Bipolar hemiarthroplasty
. Total hip arthroplasty
. Closed or open reduction and internal fixation
. Core decompression
. Skeletal traction for 6 weeks

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Closed or open reduction and internal fixation


Explanation

In young adults, every effort should be made to preserve the native femoral head. Displaced femoral neck fractures require urgent closed or open reduction and internal fixation (CRIF/ORIF) to minimize the risk of avascular necrosis and nonunion.

Question 192

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 68-year-old male is 5 years post-primary total knee arthroplasty and presents with a swollen, painful knee. Aspirate reveals 65,000 WBC/hpf with 95% polymorphonuclear cells. What is the most widely accepted surgical treatment for this chronic periprosthetic joint infection?

. Irrigation and debridement with polyethylene exchange
. Long-term suppressive antibiotics
. One-stage revision arthroplasty
. Two-stage revision arthroplasty
. Arthrodesis of the knee

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Two-stage revision arthroplasty


Explanation

A late, chronic periprosthetic joint infection (>4 weeks post-op) requires explantation of the implants. A two-stage revision arthroplasty (antibiotic spacer followed by delayed reimplantation) is the gold standard for eradicating the infection.

Question 193

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 62-year-old woman undergoes an uncomplicated total hip arthroplasty using a ceramic-on-ceramic bearing surface. Two years postoperatively, she complains of an audible 'squeaking' sound from her hip during walking. What surgical factor is most strongly associated with this phenomenon?

. Acetabular cup retroversion
. Femoral stem subsidence
. Use of a 28 mm femoral head
. Retained cement loose bodies
. Excessive femoral offset

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Acetabular cup retroversion


Explanation

Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic THA is heavily associated with component malposition, specifically acetabular cup retroversion or excessive anteversion/inclination. This leads to edge loading, disruption of fluid film lubrication, and subsequent stripe wear.

Question 194

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

A 16-year-old female soccer player sustains a non-contact pivoting injury to her knee. MRI confirms an isolated rupture of the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL). Which of the following anatomic factors is most strongly associated with an increased risk for this specific injury pattern?

. Decreased Q angle
. Increased intercondylar notch width
. Increased posterior tibial slope
. Decreased body mass index
. Genu varum alignment

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increased posterior tibial slope


Explanation

An increased posterior tibial slope is a recognized anatomic risk factor for non-contact ACL tears due to increased anterior tibial translation under axial load. A narrow intercondylar notch and increased Q angle also predispose patients to ACL injuries.

Question 195

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A 65-year-old woman undergoes a primary total hip arthroplasty via a posterior approach. Six weeks postoperatively, she presents to the emergency department with a posterior dislocation that occurred while rising from a low toilet seat. Which of the following component positions is most likely responsible for this instability?

. Excessive acetabular anteversion
. Decreased femoral anteversion
. Increased acetabular abduction
. Increased femoral offset
. Excessive anterior pelvic tilt

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Decreased femoral anteversion


Explanation

Decreased femoral anteversion (or retroversion) of the femoral component strongly predisposes a THA to posterior dislocation, particularly during hip flexion and internal rotation. Excessive acetabular anteversion typically leads to anterior instability.

Question 196

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 63-year-old woman who underwent attempted correction of a hallux valgus deformity 3 years previously presents to the office. She has pain in the hallux from dorsal abutment of the hallux on the shoe. There is no pain in the lesser toes or metatarsals. The recommended procedure to alleviate the irritation of the hallux is:

. Arthrodesis of the hallux metatarsophalangeal (MP) joint
. Resection arthroplasty of the MP joint (Keller)
. Bone block arthrodesis of the hallux MP joint
. Joint replacement of the hallux MP joint
. Extensor hallucis lengthening

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Extensor hallucis lengthening


Explanation

This patient had previously undergone resection arthroplasty (Keller) for correction. A common complication of this procedure is a cock-up toe deformity due to insufficiency of the short flexors. This can be corrected with lengthening of the extensor hallucis. If the latter procedure fails, then an arthrodesis can be performed.

Question 197

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Following a primary total hip arthroplasty via a posterior approach, a patient experiences recurrent posterior dislocations. Radiographs demonstrate an acetabular cup with 5 degrees of retroversion and 45 degrees of inclination. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

. Revision of the femoral stem to increase anteversion
. Revision of the acetabular component to increase anteversion
. Revision of the acetabular component to increase inclination
. Application of a hip abduction brace for 6 weeks
. Conversion to a bipolar hemiarthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Revision of the acetabular component to increase anteversion


Explanation

Normal acetabular cup positioning targets 15-20 degrees of anteversion. A retroverted cup significantly predisposes to posterior dislocation and requires revision to correct the anteversion.

Question 198

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 66-year-old woman presents with right knee pain 3 years after a total knee arthroplasty. Her ESR is 45 mm/hr and CRP is 22 mg/L. Joint aspiration yields synovial fluid with a WBC count of 4,500 cells/uL with 85% polymorphonuclear leukocytes. Which of the following tests would provide the highest specificity for confirming a periprosthetic joint infection (PJI)?

. Synovial fluid alpha-defensin level
. Serum procalcitonin
. Synovial fluid glucose concentration
. Bone scintigraphy (Technetium-99m scan)
. Gram stain of the synovial fluid

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Synovial fluid alpha-defensin level


Explanation

Alpha-defensin is an antimicrobial peptide released by neutrophils in response to infection and has very high sensitivity and specificity for diagnosing periprosthetic joint infection. Gram stain, while specific, has notably low sensitivity for PJI.

Question 199

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 65-year-old man who underwent a metal-on-metal total hip arthroplasty 8 years ago presents with groin pain and a palpable mass. Serum cobalt and chromium levels are significantly elevated. Aspiration yields sterile, cloudy fluid. Histopathology of the periprosthetic tissue is most likely to show which of the following?

. Extensive polymorphonuclear leukocyte infiltration
. Perivascular lymphocytic infiltrate with macrophages containing metallic debris
. Sheets of plasma cells with scattered eosinophils
. Noncaseating granulomas with Langhans giant cells
. Abundant foamy macrophages with polyethylene wear particles

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Perivascular lymphocytic infiltrate with macrophages containing metallic debris


Explanation

Adverse local tissue reaction (ALTR) or ALVAL in metal-on-metal hips is a delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction. Histologically, it classically presents with a perivascular lymphocytic infiltrate and macrophages laden with dark metallic debris.

Question 200

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 78-year-old woman with a history of severe osteoporosis presents with a displaced intracapsular femoral neck fracture (Garden IV). She is an independent community ambulator but suffers from mild Alzheimer's dementia. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

. Closed reduction and percutaneous pinning
. Open reduction and internal fixation with a sliding hip screw
. Hemiarthroplasty
. Total hip arthroplasty
. Proximal femoral nail antirotation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hemiarthroplasty


Explanation

In an elderly ambulator with a displaced femoral neck fracture and cognitive impairment, hemiarthroplasty is generally preferred. Total hip arthroplasty carries a significantly higher dislocation risk in patients with dementia, and internal fixation has unacceptably high failure rates in elderly displaced fractures.