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Question 1221

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Osteolysis, after total knee arthroplasty performed without cement, most often occurs in the

. Patella
. Tibial stem
. Distal femoral interface
. Posterior femoral interface
. Sites of screw fixation for the tibia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Patella


Explanation

As stated in the above article, the number one location for osteolysis is at the sites of screw fixation for the tibial component. Development of osteolysis on the tibial side of the implant may be influenced by threefactors. First gravity and weight bearing through the medial side of the knee tend to localize the debris particulate polyethylene on the tibial side. Second, on the femoral side if the osteolytic process is initiated along the implant-bone interface, the flanges of the femoral implant obscure a radiographic diagnosis. Finally, the addition of screws to the tibial implant provide avenues for the migration of debris into the bone. In the patients with osteolysis all had very large amounts of polythylene and metal particles less than one micrometer in size leading to intense histiolytic response.

Question 1222

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

In performing a posterior stabilized total knee arthroplasty (TKA), which component malpositioning is associated with the wear damage shown in this tibial component retrieval (Figure 172)?

. Excessive femoral component flexion
. Excessive anterior slope of the proximal tibia
. Excessive tibial component varus
. Excessive valgus resection of the distal femur

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Excessive femoral component flexion


Explanation

DISCUSSIONThe tibial polyethylene insert shows anterior post wear damage from anterior CAM-post impingement in a posterior stabilized knee. It is associated with excessive femoral component flexion and excessive posterior tibial slope in a TKA construct. It is not associated with coronal plane alignment.

Question 1223

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
Which of the following is considered an important factor in improved cemented femoral stem survivorship?
. Precoated stem with methylmethacrylate
. Varus stem position
. 2 to 3 mm of circumferential cement mantle
. Dorr C or “stovepipe” femoral anatomy
. Sharp angled corners on the femoral stem

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 2 to 3 mm of circumferential cement mantle


Explanation

Cement technique, relative stem to canal size and position, stem design, surgical technique, and femoral anatomy are important factors in cemented stem survivorship. Varus stem position, a wide diaphyseal to metaphyseal ratio (stovepipe femur), thin cement mantles (1 mm or less), and nonrounded femoral stem designs are negative prognostic factors for stem survivorship. A 2 to 3 mm circumferential cement mantle is considered optimal for survivorship.

Question 1224

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Wear of metal-on-metal articulations in total hip arthroplasty is characterized by which if the following findings?

. Fewer number of particles/wear volume compared with ceramic/ceramic bearings
. Increased incidence of cancer secondary to higher serum metal levels
. Rapidly declining levels of serum metal levels following hip arthroplasty
. back to this question next question
. Ionically charged wear particles
. Lower in vitro wear rates compared with ceramic/ceramic bearings

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Fewer number of particles/wear volume compared with ceramic/ceramic bearings


Explanation

Poor reference for this question. You can arrive at the answer by strict process of elimination. A few things first. Keep in mind that ceramic/ceramic bearings have the lowest wear rates and thus produce fewer number of particles (1 and 5 out). Serum metal levels in metal-on-metal arthroplasties increase following surgery, as corrosion takes place (3 out). In the mid 90's there was a concern for malignancy in patients with metal-on-metal arthroplaties; however, studies have found gross variation in the incidence of cancer in patients with such arthroplasties, and no statistical significant difference. There is still no consensus concerning the long-term effects of metal-onmetal articulations (2 out).This leaves 4 as an attractive answer. We know that metals are subject to corrosion, which is a chemical reaction process that weakens the metal. All metals corrode; the severity of corrosion is determined by the chemical composition of the metal. There are three types of corrosion affecting implant materials: galvanic, crevice, and fatigue. Galvanic corrosion occurs when an electrical current is established between two metals that have different chemical compositions. To avoid catastrophic galvanic corrosion, stainless steel should never be used with either cobalt or titanium alloys. Crevice corrosion occurs when the fluid in contact with the metal becomes stagnant, which then becomes acidic secondary to oxygen depletion. Finally fatigue corrosion may occur if the passive oxide film on the implant surface has been scratched or cracked. Once fatigue corrosion begins, the implant weakens and may fail below the endurance limit of the material.Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Hip & Knee Reconstruction 2. Rosemont, IL, Americal Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2000, pp 25-34. Jazrawi L, Kummer FJ, Di Cesare PE: Alternative Bearing Surfaces for Total Joint Arthroplasty. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1998;6:198-203Which of the following findings is a predisposing factor for an acute lateral patellar dislocation?Hypoplastic medial femoral condyleDysplastic vastus lateralisPatella bajaDecreased Q angleExcessive internal rotation of the femurMost acute patellar dislocations occur during the second decade. Lateral dislocations are by far the most common direction of injury. Patients with abnormal patellofemoral mechanics sustain patellar dislocations with less trauma and soft tissue injury compared with normal subjects. Predisposing factors for dislocation include hypoplastic lateral femoral condyle, dysplastic vastus medialus obliqus (VMO), patella alta, contracted iliotibial band, tight lateral retinaculum, valgus knee deformity, increased Q angle, ligamentous laxity, lateral insertion of patellar tendon on tibia, excess internal rotation of the femur / external rotation of tibia, previous patellar dislocations and injury to medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL). Some authors favor open exploration of the MPFL following arthroscopic examination for acute patella dislocations.Braham S, Vrahas MS, Fu FH: Knee fractures in the athlete. Orthop Clin North Am 2002;33:566-574Which of the following substances is labeled with technetium Tc 99m in a conventional bone scan?calciumphosphateAlkaline phosphataseBiphosphonateType I collagenItem deleted 04.47What is the preferred type of graft for skin loss of the palmar aspect of the hand?Unmeshed split-thicknessMeshed split-thicknessMultiple pinchFull-thicknessFull-thickness with attached subcutaneous fatIn general, soft tissue coverage in the hand should supply tissue that is thin, pliable, durable, and that allows for tendon gliding. The goal is to replace "like with like". Ideally, the reconstruction should allow for sensation, dynamic function, and restoration of form. Skin grafts are usually autografts and they are either splitthickness skin grafts (STSG) or full-thickness skin grafts (FTSG). Compared to STSG, full thickness grafts contract less, are more durable and flexible, and have better sensation. They are the preferred grafts for areas prone to shear and load such as fingertips, the palm, and areas over joints. STSG are better for dorsal hand wounds. STSG can be meshed or unmeshed. Meshed STSG have fewer problems with seromas, hematomas, and infections; therefore, they have better take. However, the appearance of unmeshed STSG is more aesthetically satisfying.Hand Surgery Update 3: Hand, Elbow, & Shoulder. Rosemont, IL, American Society for Surgery of the Hand, 2003, pp470-492.What ligament is attached to the displaced distal tibial articular fracture shown in Figures12a and 12b?Anterior talofibularAnterior tibiofibularPosterior talofibularPosterior tibiofibularCalcaneofibularAnkle (AP & lateral) x-rays show a non-displaced lateral malleolus fracture and a minimally displaced posterior malleolar fracture. Mortise is well preserved. No tibiotalar dislocation/subluxation. Medial malleolus seems intact. The injury to the posterior plafond component orposterior malleolus is a posterolateral avulsion fracture resulting from the pull of the posterior-inferior tibiofibular ligament. If this fragment constitutes >25-30% of the plafond surface, and/or is displaced more than 2 mm, the fragment needs internal fixation. The origin of the posterior tibiofibular ligament is broad, covering most of the horizontal distal surface of the tibia. As the ligament fibers sweep laterally and distally to insert on the fibula they fit over the trochlea.Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Trauma 2. Rosemont, IL, Americal Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2000, pp 203-225Michelson JD: Ankle fractures resulting from rotational injuries. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 2003;11:403-412A 35-year-old man with ankylosing spondylitis has progressive sagittal plane imbalance, difficulty with horizontal gaze, and thigh fatigue with standing. Radiographs are shown in Figures 13a and 13b. Maximum correction of the sagittal decompensation can be accomplished at a single level by which of the following procedures?Smith-Peterson osteotomy (posterior closing wedge hinging on the posterior longitudinal ligament)Transpedicular wedge resection osteotomyCombined anterior and posterior surgeryAnterior opening wedge osteotomyVertebral column resectionIn the radiographs we have AP / lateral spinal xrays of a patient with known ankylosing spondylitis. Of note, there are bilateral total hip arthroplasties. There is marked thoracic kyphosis, and mild thoracolumbar scoliosis. No evidence of acute fx/ dislocations. Notice that the question specifically states… maximum correction of the sagittal decompensationcan be accomplished at a single levelby which of the following procedures? Surgical correction of the kyphosis deformity with osteotomy was first done in 1945. Since then, surgeons have tried several different approaches and techniques to correct the stiff kyphosis. The transpedicular wedge osteotomy was described by Thomasen (1985) for the correction of deformity secondary to ankylosing spondylitis. In this technique the spinous process of L2 and the upper part of L3 are removed; the laminae of the second and the upper part of the third lumbar vertebrae are also removed as well as the articular processes of L2-3 and the pedicles of L2. A wedge fracture is created on the posterior wall of the vertebral body of L2. Then, plates are fixed to the spinous processes of T12-L1 and L3-4. Thomasen osteotomy places the apex of correction anteriorly, serving to shorten the spine and avoid anterior column lengthening. Advantages include the prevention of neural compression by creation of a large, shared neural foramen through removal of the pedicles, limited stretch of anterior structures, and cancellous bone healing. This technique provides maximum correction of the deformity, and can be accomplished at a single level. You either know it, or you don’t.Berven SH, Deriven V, Smith JA, Emami A, Hu SS, Bradford DS: Management of fixed sagittal plane deformity: Results of the transpedicular wedge osteotomy. Spine 2001;26:2036-2043.Thomasen E: Vertebral osteotomy for correction of kyphosis in ankylosing spondylitis.Clin Orthop 1985;194:142-152

Question 1225

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Figure 20 shows the resting and stress radiographs of a patient who has had pain and feelings of instability after undergoing a total knee arthroplasty 1 year ago. Which of the following ligaments is not functional and is therefore responsible for the patient’s symptoms?
. Anterior cruciate
. Posterior cruciate
. Medial collateral
. Lateral collateral
. Patellar tendon/ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior cruciate


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The radiographs show posterior instability caused by an absent posterior cruciate ligament. The tibia is significantly displaced posteriorly with respect to the femur. This can be demonstrated with a lateral radiograph obtained with the knee in flexion. The anterior cruciate ligament has been resected but is not responsible for the instability shown.

Question 1226

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
What is the most frequent late complication of cementless fixation in total knee arthroplasty?
. Infection
. Subluxation of the patella
. Loss of motion
. Femoral loosening
. Osteolysis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Osteolysis


Explanation

The incidence of osteolysis, particularly around fixation screws in the tibia, can be as high as 30%. Stable femoral component fixation is generally maintained. Infection, subluxation of the patella, and stiffness can occur with either cemented or cementless fixation.

Question 1227

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Figures below show the radiographs obtained from a 90-year-old woman who is seen in the emergency department after a fall from a height. She has right hip and thigh pain and is unable to bear weight. Based on this patient's history and imaging, what is the best next step?
. Hip revision and implantation of a proximal femoral replacement
. Hip revision and implantation of a tapered fluted stem
. Open reduction and internal fixation with a locked plate and allograft struts
. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein laboratory studies

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein laboratory studies


Explanation

Periprosthetic fracture is the third most common reason (after loosening and infection) for revision surgery after total hip arthroplasty (THA). Late periprosthetic fracture risk is 0.4% to 1.1% after primary THA and 2.1% to 4% after revision THA. Risk factors for periprosthetic fracture include age over 70 years, decreasing bone mass, and loosening of implants and osteolysis. The risk of concomitant infection in the presence of a periprosthetic fracture is 11%, according to Chevillotte and associates. Obtaining presurgical aspiration or intrasurgical tissue for culture is recommended if concomitant infection is suspected.

Question 1228

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Compared with cobalt-chromium, the biomechanical properties of titanium on polyethylene articulation in total hip replacement result in
. an increased rate of volumetric wear.
. increased stability.
. decreased frictional force.
. a decreased rate of acetabular loosening.
. a decreased rate of femoral stem loosening.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. an increased rate of volumetric wear.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The surface hardness of titanium is low compared with that of cobalt-chromium alloys. Titanium articulations are easily scratched, resulting in a significantly increased rate of wear and debris production. The wear and resulting lysis can also result in an increased rate of loosening.

Question 1229

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Compared to metal-on-polyethylene total hip bearing surfaces, the debris particles generated by metal-on-metal articulations are
. larger and less numerous.
. larger and more numerous.
. smaller and less numerous.
. smaller and more numerous.
. not detectable.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. smaller and more numerous.


Explanation

Retrieval studies have shown that the debris particles produced by metal-on-metal articulations in total hip arthroplasty are several orders of magnitude smaller and may be up to 100 times more numerous than those found with metal-on-polyethylene articulations.

Question 1230

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)
Which of the following aids in correction of patellar tracking after total knee arthroplasty (TKA)?
. Internal rotation of the femoral component
. Internal rotation of the tibial component
. Increasing size of the tibial component
. Medialization of the patellar component
. Joint line elevation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medialization of the patellar component


Explanation

External rotation of the femoral and tibial components has been shown to aid in tracking. Likewise, medialization of the patellar button aids in patellar tracking and prevention of lateral subluxations and dislocations.

Question 1231

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 40-year-old man with a history of Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease underwent a right hip resurfacing 3 years ago with no perioperative complications. Hip pain has developed gradually during the last 4 months. Radiographs show no evidence of fixation loosening or any adverse changes at the femoral neck. No periarticular osteolysis is evident. What is the most appropriate management of this condition?
. Continue to observe with repeat radiographs in 6 months
. Fluoroscopic-guided iliopsoas tendon cortisone injection
. Hip aspiration
. Serum cobalt and chromium levels and metal-reduction MRI scan

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Serum cobalt and chromium levels and metal-reduction MRI scan


Explanation

Controversy persists over what exactly is the best approach to managing patients with metal-on-metal (MOM) hip arthroplasties. All patients with painful MOM hip arthroplasties should be examined for fixation loosening, wear/osteolysis, and infection—no differently than patients without MOM hip arthroplasties. It is recommended to obtain serum trace element levels. If the levels are high, cross-sectional imaging should be obtained to determine whether any pseudotumor or tissue necrosis is present around the hip arthroplasty. Hip aspiration should be considered if concern for infection exists. Adverse tissue reaction has been identified to occur around MOM hip arthroplasties. The predominant histologic feature is tissue necrosis with infiltration of lymphocytes and plasma cells.

Question 1232

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Which of the following factors is associated with decreases in active periprosthetic osteolysis in total hip arthroplasty?
. Large heads in metal-on-polyethylene articulations
. Modular acetabular components
. Circumferential porous coating
. Sterilization of polyethylene by gamma irradiation with storage in air
. Supplemental screw fixation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Circumferential porous coating


Explanation

A 32-mm head design results in less linear wear but more volumetric wear particles. Modular components that allow motion between the polyethylene insert and the shell can result in backside wear. The oxidative degradation of gamma-irradiated polyethylene stored in air leads to increased wear. All of these factors lead to a greater particulate load and more osteolysis. Circumferential porous coating blocks ingrowth of particle-laden fluid and decreases osteolysis.

Question 1233

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 55-year-old woman is referred for evaluation of a painful knee replacement. She underwent total knee arthroplasty (TKA) more than 1 year ago without perioperative complications but has had consistent pain since the surgery. The patient’s preoperative radiographs and postoperative radiographs are shown in Figures below. Examination reveals medial laxity during valgus stress testing and range of motion of 0° to 70°. Her erythrocyte sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein level are normal. What is the best next step?
. Unloader brace
. Distal femoral osteotomy
. Open arthrofibrosis debridement with lateral ligament balancing and polyethylene exchange
. Revision TKA of both the femoral and tibial components

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Revision TKA of both the femoral and tibial components


Explanation

The radiographs show substantial valgus malalignment of the femoral component, with lateral mechanical axis deviation. Clinically, by examination she displays instability and stiffness as a result. Revision knee replacement is appropriate and should consist of total revision to stemmed femoral and tibial components with a varus-valgus constrained insert, given the likely attenuation of the medial collateral ligament. Open debridement with ligament balancing and polyethylene exchange do not address the underlying cause and are inappropriate. Distal femoral osteotomy is not useful in the setting of previous total knee replacement. Nonsurgical treatment with an unloader brace would be ineffective in correcting the alignment.

Question 1234

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Figures 22a and 22b show the radiographs of a patient who reports stiffness of the hip and associated pain. Management should consist of
. use of a cane for ambulation.
. diphosphonate therapy.
. physical therapy and indomethacin.
. surgical excision and radiation therapy.
. revision arthroplasty.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. surgical excision and radiation therapy.


Explanation

The patient has grade IV heterotopic ossification with the limb in an abnormal nonfunctional position. Treatment should consist of excision of the bone to restore hip motion and prophylaxis to prevent recurrent formation. The best time to excise the bone is controversial, with no conclusive evidence supporting early or late excision.

Question 1235

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
During total knee arthroplasty, the patella is noted to subluxate laterally despite a lateral retinacular release. Which of the following methods is most likely to improve patellar stability?
. Slight external rotation of the tibial component
. Slight internal rotation of the femoral component
. Slight anterior translation of the tibial component
. Use of a fixed-bearing knee as opposed to a mobile-bearing knee
. Use of a thicker patellar component

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Slight external rotation of the tibial component


Explanation

Slight external rotation of the tibial component will cause a net medialization of the tibial tubercle when the knee is articulated. This will help centralize the extensor mechanism over the trochlear groove and minimize the tendency for lateral subluxation. Internal rotation of the femoral component increases the risk of patellar instability. Anterior translation of the tibial component moves the patellar tendon insertion posteriorly, and may increase force on the patella but should not substantially alter patellar tracking. Clinical studies have shown no patellofemoral benefits to the use of fixed- or mobile-bearing designs. Thicker patellar components will not improve tracking, and may compound the problem.

Question 1236

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
When do most symptomatic thromboembolic events occur after total joint arthroplasty?
. More than 3 months after surgery
. On the day of surgery
. Within the first week after surgery
. Between 1 week and 6 weeks after surgery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Between 1 week and 6 weeks after surgery


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Most clinical venous thromboembolism events occur between the second and sixth weeks after surgery. It is estimated that 10% of patients are readmitted to the hospital within the first 3 months after total hip or knee arthroplasties. Most pulmonary events on the day of surgery are related to fat embolism or cardiac events.

Question 1237

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 46-year-old man reports occasional squeaking of his hip 2 years after undergoing an uneventful total hip arthroplasty. History reveals no pain, physical examination cannot reproduce audible squeaking, and radiographs show appropriate implant position. What is the most appropriate management?
. Revise the cup bearing to polyethylene
. Revise the cup bearing to polyethylene and replace the femoral head with a metal design
. Increase the cup abduction angle
. Decrease the cup abduction angle
. Continue routine follow-up and observation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Continue routine follow-up and observation


Explanation

DISCUSSION: In the absence of component malpositioning, hip pain, or other compelling reasons to reoperate, a squeaking ceramic bearing is not an indication for revision surgery. The patient can be reassured and observed. Hopefully, with a better understanding of acoustic phenomena following ceramic total hip arthroplasty, this complication can be minimized.

Question 1238

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 65-year-old man with a history of Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease underwent a right hip resurfacing 3 years ago with no perioperative complications. Hip pain has developed gradually during the last 4 months. Radiographs show no evidence of fixation loosening or any adverse changes at the femoral neck. No periarticular osteolysis is evident. A large intra-articular and intrapelvic pseudotumor has developed. What predominant histological feature(s) is/are present in such a lesion?
. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
. Extracellular metal-wear debris
. Cement particles within the macrophages
. Lymphocytes and plasma cells

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lymphocytes and plasma cells


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Controversy persists over what exactly is the best approach to managing patients with metal-on-metal (MOM) hip arthroplasties. All patients with painful MOM hip arthroplasties should be examined for fixation loosening, wear/osteolysis, and infection—no differently than patients without MOM hip arthroplasties. It is recommended to obtain serum trace element levels. If the levels are high, cross-sectional imaging should be obtained to determine whether any pseudotumor or tissue necrosis is present around the hip arthroplasty. Hip aspiration should be considered if concern for infection exists. Adverse tissue reaction has been identified to occur around MOM hip arthroplasties. The predominant histologic feature is tissue necrosis with infiltration of lymphocytes and plasma cells.

Question 1239

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Figure 16 shows the radiograph of an otherwise healthy 62-year-old woman who fell. Management should consist of:
. revision total hip arthroplasty with a cemented femoral component and adjuvant fracture fixation.
. revision total hip arthroplasty with a cementless femoral component and adjuvant fracture fixation.
. open reduction and internal fixation of the fracture and retention of the original components.
. removal of the components, open reduction and internal fixation of the fracture, and delayed replantation of the components when the fracture is healed.
. resection arthroplasty and internal fixation of the fracture.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. revision total hip arthroplasty with a cementless femoral component and adjuvant fracture fixation.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The radiograph reveals that the femoral component is grossly loose as evidenced by disruption of the cement column; therefore, retention of the original components will not yield a successful outcome. A cementless revision is the procedure of choice. A strut graft and/or plate may be added at the surgeon’s discretion. A resection arthroplasty would only be considered in a nonambulatory patient. Cemented fixation of the revision component would be problematic given the numerous fracture fragments and the inability to contain the cement.

Question 1240

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
When performing a cruciate-retaining total knee arthroplasty, trial components are inserted. The knee comes to full extension but is tight in flexion. The surgeon should consider
. flexing the femoral component.
. releasing the posterior cruciate ligament.
. downsizing the tibial insert thickness.
. resecting more distal femur.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. releasing the posterior cruciate ligament.


Explanation

In this scenario, the flexion gap needs to be increased. Increase in flexion gap can be accomplished by downsizing the femoral component and increasing posterior tibial slope. In posterior cruciate-retaining TKA procedures, recession or release of the posterior cruciate ligament can loosen the flexion gap, allowing for an increase in flexion. Flexing the femoral component tightens the flexion gap, and downsizing the tibial insert thickness decreases flexion and extension gaps, while resection of the distal femur only increases the extension gap.