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Question 1201

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)
Kinematic testing of patellofemoral motion demonstrates that malalignment that produces an increased Q angle causes a shift of the patella laterally in the trochlear groove and is most pronounced during what phase of the flexion arc?
. 0 to 15 degrees
. 20 to 30 degrees
. 40 to 90 degrees
. 100 to 120 degrees
. 130 to 140 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 40 to 90 degrees


Explanation

Dynamic patellofemoral joint contact measurements on cadaveric knees with simulated increased Q angle demonstrated that forces shifted to the lateral facet. The lateral shift in the patella was most pronounced from 40 to 90 degrees of flexion. At lower degrees of flexion, the lateral shift was significantly less. At higher degrees of flexion, the continued shift of the patella was not as pronounced.

Question 1202

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Which of the following genetic disorders has an X-linked recessive inheritance pattern?

. Gaucher disease
. Prader-Willi Syndrome
. Diastrophic Dysplasia
. Hemophilia A
. Hypophosphatemic rickets

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hemophilia A


Explanation

Hemophilia A is inherited in an X-linked recessive fashion.linked recessive disorders occur when a mutation occurs on the X chromosome that causes the phenotype to be expressed in males and in females who are homozygous for the gene mutation. These disorders are much more common in males since they only have one X chromosome. Other X-linked recessive disorders include: Duchenne muscular dystrophy, Becker's muscular dystrophy, Hunter's syndrome, and spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia (SED) tarda.Vanderhave et al. reviewed the orthopaedic consideration in patients with hemophilia. Amongst other things, they discuss arthroplasty in patients with this condition. While they are at higher risk for stiffness and acute hemarthrosis following total knee arthroplasty, ~90-95% of patients have good or excellent results.Illustration A shows how hemophilia is inherited through a punnett square. Illustration B shows how a weak clotting mechanism causes increased bleeding in patients with hemophilia.Incorrect Answers:

Question 1203

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 47-year-old man who works as a carpenter reports a 12-month history of painful mechanical locking of his dominant elbow in the mid range of movement. He also has progressive pain at terminal extension that has not responded to medication, rest, and intra-articular cortisone injection. Active range of movement is from 35 degrees to 130 degrees, and he has full pronation and supination. The ulnar nerve is stable, and he has no subjective or objective neurologic dysfunction in the hand. Radiographs are shown in Figures 22a and 22b. What is the most appropriate treatment? Review Topic

. Oral corticosteroid medication and changes in job activities
. Soft-tissue interposition arthroplasty
. Arthroscopic capsular release, loose body removal, and osteophyte decompression
. Radial head arthroplasty
. Total elbow arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic capsular release, loose body removal, and osteophyte decompression


Explanation

The most appropriate treatment is arthroscopic capsular release, loose body removal, and osteophyte decompression. The patient has moderate osteoarthritis of the dominant elbow, with mechanical symptoms suggestive of loose osteochondral body formation. Because the patient has failed to respond to the typical nonsurgical therapeutic options, it is unlikely that further oral medication will be helpful, and job modification may not be practical at this stage. Soft-tissue arthroplasty may be reasonable to consider when less invasive methods, such as arthroscopy, fail. Isolated radial head arthroplasty would not sufficiently address the symptoms. Total elbow arthroplasty is indicated in cases of more advanced disease in older patients with lower physical demands.

Question 1204

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)
The patient undergoes a mobile-bearing UKA. When compared to a fixed-bearing metal-backed unicompartmental arthroplasty, this procedure is associated with a
. higher risk for failure attributable to wear.
. higher risk for failure attributable to bearing spinout.
. lower risk for loosening.
. lower risk for arthritic progression of the lateral compartment.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. higher risk for failure attributable to bearing spinout.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: A patient with medial compartment arthritis and a correctable varus deformity with no clinical or examination findings of knee instability most likely has an intact ACL. The pattern of medial compartment osteoarthritis most commonly associated with an intact ACL is that of anteromedial osteoarthritis. An incompetent ACL is commonly associated with a fixed varus deformity and radiographic signs of posteromedial wear. An incompetent ACL is a relative contraindication to a mobile-bearing UKA. When evaluating patients for a mobile-bearing UKA, a stress radiograph will allow the orthopaedic surgeon to determine the correction of the varus deformity and assess the lateral compartment. Inability to fully correct the deformity or narrowing of the lateral compartment with valgus stress should influence the surgeon against UKA. Joint registries across the world have shown decreased survivorship associated with TKA and UKA in men compared to other age groups, but survivorship is lower for UKA than TKA. No studies to date have shown differences in survivorship between fixed- or mobile-bearing UKAs. The complication that is unique to mobile-bearing UKA is bearing spinout, and this occurs in fewer than 1% of mobile-bearing UKA procedures. In vivo and in vitro polyethylene wear in mobile-bearing UKA is low. Arthritis progression may be faster for mobile-bearing UKAs than fixed-bearing UKAs.

Question 1205

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Which of the following is considered the best cementless acetabular reconstruction method when planning for total hip arthroplasty in a patient with developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH)?
. Cemented reconstruction with the cup in an anatomic position and cement filling the defect
. Medialized component positioning with no femoral head graft, leaving up to 20% of the shell uncovered
. High and lateral positioning of the acetabular component with a femoral head graft
. Anatomic positioning of a small shell with a 28-mm liner and 4 mm of polyethylene
. Anatomic positioning of the cup and a femoral head graft covering 70% of the cup

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medialized component positioning with no femoral head graft, leaving up to 20% of the shell uncovered


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Anatomic positioning of the acetabular component has been shown to be the optimal position for reconstruction of the acetabulum in total hip arthroplasty for DDH. The use of medialized component positioning has been shown to be successful at maximizing the host bone coverage and minimizing the use of bone graft to structurally support the acetabular component. A small acetabular component can be used successfully as long as the femoral head is also reduced in size to maintain the thickness of the acetabular polyethylene. High and lateral positioning for the acetabular reconstruction will result in an increase in the joint reaction forces. In addition, a high and lateral placement will not provide adequate bone to stabilize the reconstruction. REFERENCES: Numair J, Joshi AB, Murphy JC, Porter ML, Hardinge K: Total hip arthroplasty for congenital dysplasia or dislocation of the hip: Survivorship analysis and long-term results. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1997;79:1352-1360. Dorr LD, Tawakkol S, Moorthy M, Long W, Wan Z: Medial protrusio technique for placement of a porous-coated, hemispherical acetabular component without cement in a total hip arthroplasty in patients who have acetabular dysplasia. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1999;81:83-92. Jasty M, Anderson MJ, Harris WH: Total hip replacement for developmental dysplasia of the hip. Clin Orthop 1995;311:40-45.

Question 1206

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 55-year-old woman is referred for evaluation of a painful knee replacement. She underwent total knee arthroplasty (TKA) more than 1 year ago without perioperative complications but has had consistent pain since the surgery. The patient’s preoperative radiographs and postoperative radiographs are shown in Figures below. Examination reveals medial laxity during valgus stress testing and range of motion of 0° to 70°. Her erythrocyte sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein level are normal. What is the best next step?
. Unloader brace
. Distal femoral osteotomy
. Open arthrofibrosis debridement with lateral ligament balancing and polyethylene exchange
. Revision TKA of both the femoral and tibial components

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Revision TKA of both the femoral and tibial components


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The radiographs show substantial valgus malalignment of the femoral component, with lateral mechanical axis deviation. Clinically, by examination she displays instability and stiffness as a result. Revision knee replacement is appropriate and should consist of total revision to stemmed femoral and tibial components with a varus-valgus constrained insert, given the likely attenuation of the medial collateral ligament. Open debridement with ligament balancing and polyethylene exchange do not address the underlying cause and are inappropriate. Distal femoral osteotomy is not useful in the setting of previous total knee replacement. Nonsurgical treatment with an unloader brace would be ineffective in correcting the alignment.

Question 1207

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
An acetabular reinforcement cage is most often indicated for which of the following conditions?
. Contained cavitary defect
. Deficient anterior wall
. Pelvic discontinuity
. Zone 1 osteolysis
. Medial wall defect

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pelvic discontinuity


Explanation

DISCUSSION: An acetabular reinforcement cage is required infrequently except when there is pelvic discontinuity in which there is no posterior column support of the acetabular cup. A larger cup inserted with cement and morselized bone graft is an effective technique for contained cavitary and anterior wall defects. Zone 1 osteolysis and a medial wall defect are essentially the same as a contained cavitary defect and can be reconstructed using cementless cups.

Question 1208

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Which of the following factors is most likely to be associated with prolonged survival of total knee arthroplasty?
. History of high tibial osteotomy
. Diagnosis of traumatic arthritis
. Diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis
. Diagnosis of osteoporosis
. Diagnosis of osteonecrosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis


Explanation

DISCUSSION: In a survivorship study of 9,200 total knee arthroplasties, Rand and Ilstrup identified four independent variables associated with a significantly lower risk of failure: primary total knee arthroplasty, diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis, age of 60 years or older, and use of a condylar prosthesis with a metal-backed tibial component. Other clinical studies report the use of a posterior stabilized prosthesis to be comparable to a total condylar prosthesis with retained posterior cruciate ligament.

Question 1209

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
An 82-year-old man has had episodic right thigh pain after undergoing a total hip arthroplasty 10 years ago. Initial postoperative radiographs are shown in Figures 26a and 26b, and current radiographs are shown in Figures 26c and 26d. What is the most likely cause of his pain?
. Acetabular osteolysis
. Femoral osteolysis
. Acetabular loosening
. Femoral loosening
. Femoral and acetabular loosening

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Femoral loosening


Explanation

These radiographs are dominated by the subsidence of the femoral component. There is also evidence of polyethylene wear and femoral osteolysis in the region of the greater trochanter. There is no evidence of proximal (calcar) stress shielding, and there is a thick distal pedestal. Engh and associates defined two major signs of osseointegration - the absence of radiolucent lines around the porous-surfaced portion of the implant and new bone bridging the gap between the endosteal surface and the porous portion of the implant. Implant migration indicates failure of ingrowth. Osteolysis is a periprosthetic loss of bone secondary to particulate debris and it is often clinically silent unless it is accompanied by pathologic fracture. It is often globular. Acetabular loosening is based on radiolucent lines and implant migration. The current radiographs demonstrate subsidence of the stem with pedestal formation.

Question 1210

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Metal-on-metal lumbar disk arthroplasty devices may generate cobalt and chromium ions into the serum of patients after implantation into the lumbar spine. Which of the following statements best represents the levels of the serum ion levels in these patients? Review Topic

. The serum ion levels are not measureable in these patients.
. The serum ion levels are measureable, but are of negligible value in these patients.
. The serum ion levels measured equal the values measured in the local tissues in total hip arthroplasty metal-on-metal prostheses.
. The serum ion levels measured are much lower in terms of their level to the values measured in total hip arthroplasty metal-on-metal prostheses.
. The serum ion levels measured are similar in terms of their level to the values measured in total hip arthroplasty metal-on-metal prostheses.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The serum ion levels are not measureable in these patients.


Explanation

According to two studies looking at patients with a cobalt-chrome metal-on-metal lumbar disk arthroplasty, serum ion levels in these patients were similar to values measured in patients with total hip arthroplasty metal-on-metal prostheses.

Question 1211

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 58-year-old man reports a 2-month onset of groin pain with no history of trauma. Examination reveals that range of motion of the hip is mildly restricted, and he has pain with both weight bearing and at rest. An MRI scan is shown in Figure 20. Treatment should consist of
. protected weight bearing and anti-inflammatory drugs.
. core decompression of the femoral head.
. vascularized free fibular grafting to the femoral head.
. bipolar hemiarthroplasty of the hip.
. total hip arthroplasty.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. protected weight bearing and anti-inflammatory drugs.


Explanation

The MRI findings show highly increased signal through the entire femoral head and neck on STIR imaging, diagnostic of transient osteoporosis of the femoral head. This disease entity can be seen in middle-aged men, and should be treated nonsurgically. The natural history is that of self-resolution.

Question 1212

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Patellofemoral arthroplasty is contraindicated in the presence of
. moderate patellar tilt.
. trochlear dysplasia.
. inflammatory arthritis.
. severe crepitus.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. inflammatory arthritis.


Explanation

Any inflammatory disease, including crystalline arthropathy, is a contraindication for patellofemoral arthroplasty. Patellar tilt and dysplasia frequently occur in the setting of patellofemoral arthritis and do not constitute a contraindication to this procedure. Severe crepitus is common and frequently addressed with patellofemoral arthroplasty.

Question 1213

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A right-handed 44-year-old construction worker reports pain and limited range of motion in his right elbow that has limited his ability to work for the past year. Examination reveals range of motion from 60 to 90 degrees, and he has pain at the extremes of flexion and extension. Pronation and supination are minimally restricted. Anti-inflammatory drugs have failed to provide relief. A radiograph is shown in Figure 8. Management should now consist of
. observation.
. physical therapy.
. ulnohumeral arthroplasty.
. ulnohumeral arthroplasty and ulnar nerve decompression.
. semiconstrained elbow arthroplasty.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. ulnohumeral arthroplasty and ulnar nerve decompression.


Explanation

The radiograph reveals primary osteoarthritis of the elbow; therefore, ulnohumeral arthroplasty is the preferred procedure. Patients with severely limited preoperative elbow extension of more than 60 degrees and flexion of less than 100 degrees are at risk for ulnar nerve dysfunction postoperatively and should undergo a concomitant ulnar nerve decompression. Nonsurgical methods are unlikely to improve his chronic condition. Elbow arthroplasty is contraindicated for patients in this age group and with this diagnosis.

Question 1214

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Which of the following is considered a potential advantage in prophylaxis for the prevention of deep venous thrombosis associated with the use of low-molecular weight heparin (LMWH) as compared with fixed-dose unfractionated heparin?
. Reduction in free fibrinogen radicals
. Reduction in bleeding complications
. Increased venous flow
. Improved bioavailability
. Inhibition of factors V, VI, and IX

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Improved bioavailability


Explanation

One possible reason for improved efficacy of LMWHs is the relative improved bioavailability compared with that of unfractionated heparin. This is, in part, the result of a more predictable dose response and a longer half-life. There is no alteration of venous flow, and the rate of bleeding complications is the same or slightly higher than that of other prophylactic agents.

Question 1215

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
The radiographs obtained from a year-old man with long-standing right knee osteoarthritis and pain that is unresponsive to nonsurgical treatment are shown. The patient undergoes navigated cruciate-retaining right total knee arthroplasty. After surgery, this patient continues to experience pain and swelling of the knee with recurrent effusions. He returns to the office reporting continued pain 2 years after surgery. He describes instability, particularly when descending stairs. On examination, range of motion of 0° to 120° is observed, with no extensor lag. Slope of the tibial component is 7°. The knee is stable to varus and valgus stress in extension, but flexion instability is present in both the anterior-posterior direction and the varus-valgus direction. Bracing leads to a slight decrease in symptoms but is not well tolerated. Isokinetic testing demonstrates decreased knee extension velocity at mid push. Radiographs demonstrate well-aligned and fixed knee implants. An infection work-up is negative. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention at this time?
. Tibial polyethylene exchange
. Revision of the femoral and tibial components and conversion to a posterior stabilized insert
. Revision of the femoral and tibial components to a constrained rotating hinge prosthesis
. Isolated femoral component revision and upsizing of the femoral implant with a new posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)-retaining polyethylene insert

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Revision of the femoral and tibial components and conversion to a posterior stabilized insert


Explanation

The patient’s symptoms at follow-up—pain, swelling, and difficulty descending stairs—suggest knee flexion instability. Considering his history, an incompetent PCL must be considered. Revision of the knee to a posterior stabilized or nonlinked constrained condylar implant (depending on the condition of the ligaments) likely is needed to address his symptoms. The difference in extension stability and flexion stability makes polyethylene exchange a poor option. A constrained rotating hinge design is not necessary. Repeat use of a PCL-retaining insert is not recommended. Tibial and femoral revision both are required. Correction of excessive slope will be attained with tibial revision, femoral component revision is required to convert to a PCL-substituting design.

Question 1216

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
The use of knee arthroscopy following total knee arthroplasty is most effective in treating which of the following conditions?
. Patellar clunk syndrome
. Septic arthritis
. Nonspecific pain
. Improper tracking of the patellar component
. Synovitis secondary to polyethylene wear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Patellar clunk syndrome


Explanation

Patellar clunk syndrome is associated with certain types of posterior stabilized knee arthroplasties. Arthroscopic resection of the band of inflammatory tissue inferior to the patellar component is effective in treating this condition. Arthroscopic lavage of infected knee arthroplasties is not associated with an acceptable success rate.

Question 1217

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
The images show the radiographs obtained from an 86-year-old woman who has had chronic left hip pain for several years. She now uses a walker and a wheelchair for ambulation. She is medically healthy. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention?
. Cemented left total hip arthroplasty (THA)
. Cementless left THA with a proximally porous coated femoral stem
. Hybrid left THA
. Cementless left THA with a diaphyseal engaging conical femoral stem

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hybrid left THA


Explanation

This 86-year-old woman has poor bone quality and osteoarthritis of the left hip. Her lateral radiograph confirms Dorr type C bone quality. A hybrid left THA with a cemented femoral stem is the treatment of choice.

Question 1218

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Figures below represent the radiographs obtained from a 37-year-old man with severe right knee pain. He has a history of prior tibial osteotomy for adolescent tibia vara but notes residual bowing of his legs. On examination, he is 5'8" tall and weighs 322 pounds. He has a waddling gait with a bilateral varus thrust and 20° varus deformity of both legs. His right knee range of motion is 0° to 120° with a fixed varus deformity. What is the best next step?
. Total knee arthroplasty with standard components
. Correction of tibial deformity with osteotomy and nonsurgical management of the osteoarthritis
. Arthrodesis with a long antegrade nail
. Total knee arthroplasty with a constrained device

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Total knee arthroplasty with a constrained device


Explanation

This patient has severe, uncorrectable varus deformity and pain from end-stage osteoarthritis secondary to prior adolescent tibia vara. Although he is young to consider arthroplasty, this option is likely to give him the most functional limb compared with arthrodesis with a long antegrade nail. During arthroplasty surgery, his knee will likely require extensive medial release to achieve anatomic limb alignment. Standard components in total knee arthroplasty likely would result in lateral instability, so this option is not the best answer. The best choice is total knee arthroplasty with a constrained device, which adds constraint to the knee to provide balance.

Question 1219

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 57-year-old woman experiences pain 1 year after total knee arthroplasty (TKA). She reports sharp anterior pain and a painful catching sensation that is aggravated by rising from a chair or climbing stairs. Physical examination reveals a mild effusion and a range of motion of 2° to 130°, with patellar crepitus. The symptoms are reproduced by resisted knee extension. Radiographs show a well-aligned posterior-stabilized TKA without evidence of component loosening. What is the most likely cause of this patient's pain?
. Patellar clunk syndrome
. Flexion gap instability
. Polyethylene wear
. Femoral component malrotation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Patellar clunk syndrome


Explanation

Patellar clunk syndrome is caused by the development of a fibrous nodule on the posterior aspect of the quadriceps tendon at its insertion into the patella. It causes a painful catching sensation when the extensor mechanism traverses over the trochlear notch as the knee extends from 45° of flexion to 30° from full extension. It characteristically occurs in posterior stabilized total knee arthroplasties and appears to be related to femoral component design. The syndrome can usually be prevented by excising the residual synovial fold just proximal to the patella. Flexion gap instability can also cause a painful total knee arthroplasty but is less common in posterior stabilized implants. Femoral component malrotation can cause pain attributable to a flexion gap imbalance or patellar tracking problems. Polyethylene wear would be unlikely after just 1 year. Patellar clunk syndrome can usually be addressed successfully with arthroscopic synovectomy.

Question 1220

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Figure 1 shows the radiograph of an 18-year-old patient who has severe knee pain. Treatment consisting of osteotomy should be performed
. above the tibial tubercle.
. at or just below the tibial tubercle.
. in the tibial diaphysis.
. on both the femur and tibia.
. on the femur alone.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. at or just below the tibial tubercle.


Explanation

Very large corrections of tibial deformity can be achieved at or just below the tibial tubercle. This level of osteotomy maintains the relationship between the tubercle and the rest of the joint, does not alter patellofemoral mechanics, and avoids complicating possible future conversion to total knee arthroplasty. High tibial osteotomy is contraindicated for large corrections because of excessive elevation of the tibial tubercle and overhang of the lateral plateau. Correction in the tibial diaphysis creates a zig-zag pattern in the tibia by correcting below the deformity and risks nonunion in cortical bone. There is no evidence that the femur is deformed; therefore, femoral osteotomy is not indicated.