This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee). Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 561
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
During a primary total knee arthroplasty, after making the standard initial bone cuts, trial components are placed. The knee is found to be tight in flexion but well-balanced in extension. Which of the following surgical adjustments is most appropriate to balance the gaps?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Increase the posterior slope of the tibial cut
Explanation
A knee that is tight in flexion but well-balanced in extension requires an adjustment that selectively increases the flexion gap. Increasing the posterior tibial slope will open the flexion gap without significantly altering the extension gap.
Question 562
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 60-year-old female suffers recurrent posterior dislocations following a primary total hip arthroplasty performed via a posterior approach. Radiographs demonstrate the acetabular cup is positioned in 45 degrees of inclination and 0 degrees of anteversion. What is the primary mechanical cause of her instability?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Insufficient cup anteversion
Explanation
The standard safe zone for acetabular component positioning is approximately 40 +/- 10 degrees of inclination and 15 +/- 10 degrees of anteversion. A cup with 0 degrees of anteversion is retroverted, which heavily predisposes the hip to posterior dislocation.
Question 563
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 65-year-old man presents with knee pain 2 years after a total knee arthroplasty. Synovial fluid aspiration yields a white blood cell count of 3,500 cells/ยตL with 75% neutrophils. Which of the following is considered a major criterion for definitive periprosthetic joint infection (PJI) according to the 2018 International Consensus Meeting (ICM) criteria?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Two positive cultures of the same organism from joint aspirates or tissue
Explanation
According to the 2018 ICM criteria, a major criterion for PJI is either two positive periprosthetic cultures with the same organism or the presence of a sinus tract communicating with the joint. The other options are considered minor criteria.
Question 564
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 55-year-old female undergoes a total hip arthroplasty utilizing a ceramic-on-ceramic bearing. One year postoperatively, she complains of a high-pitched squeaking noise during gait. Which component factor is most strongly associated with the development of this phenomenon?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Excessive acetabular cup inclination leading to edge loading
Explanation
Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic total hip arthroplasty is most heavily linked to edge loading of the bearing surfaces. This is typically caused by component malposition, specifically excessive acetabular cup inclination or malversion.
Question 565
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Which wear mechanism is primarily responsible for the generation of submicron polyethylene wear debris, which ultimately triggers macrophage-mediated osteolysis in total hip arthroplasty?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Adhesive wear
Explanation
Adhesive wear occurs when asperities on the femoral head momentarily 'micro-weld' to the polyethylene surface, shearing off submicron particles during joint motion. These tiny submicron particles are the primary instigators of the macrophage cascade leading to periprosthetic osteolysis.
Question 566
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 68-year-old female sustains a posterior dislocation of her total hip arthroplasty 4 weeks postoperatively. The index procedure was performed via a posterior approach. She is successfully closed reduced in the emergency department. What is the most common etiology for early posterior instability in this specific clinical setting?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Component malposition, such as acetabular retroversion
Explanation
Early dislocation (within the first few months) following a total hip arthroplasty is most frequently associated with component malposition. For posterior dislocations, this typically involves inadequate acetabular anteversion (retroversion) or inadequate offset.
Question 567
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 62-year-old man presents with progressive groin pain 5 years after receiving a modern metal-on-polyethylene total hip arthroplasty. Serum cobalt and chromium levels are significantly elevated, and an MRI with MARS sequencing reveals a large fluid collection around the hip joint. What is the most likely source of the elevated metal ions?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Mechanochemical fretting and corrosion at the modular head-neck taper (trunnionosis)
Explanation
In a metal-on-polyethylene THA presenting with Adverse Local Tissue Reaction (ALTR) and elevated cobalt/chromium levels, the source of the metal ions is the modular junction. This phenomenon, known as trunnionosis, involves fretting and crevice corrosion at the head-neck taper.
Question 568
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Following a total hip arthroplasty via a posterior approach, a patient experiences recurrent posterior dislocations. Radiographs reveal the acetabular component is placed in 30 degrees of abduction and 5 degrees of retroversion. What is the most appropriate definitive management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Revision of the acetabular component to increase anteversion
Explanation
The acetabular component is retroverted, predisposing the patient to posterior dislocation. The target for cup placement is typically 15-20 degrees of anteversion and 40-45 degrees of abduction, making cup revision the definitive treatment.
Question 569
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 68-year-old male presents with a painful total knee arthroplasty 3 years post-operatively. Synovial fluid analysis reveals a WBC count of 4,500 cells/mcL with 85% PMNs. Alpha-defensin is positive. No sinus tract is present. According to the MSIS criteria, what is the diagnostic conclusion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The diagnosis of periprosthetic joint infection is definitive
Explanation
According to major PJI diagnostic criteria, a positive alpha-defensin test combined with an elevated synovial WBC count (>3000 cells/mcL) and PMN percentage (>80%) in the chronic setting definitively confirms periprosthetic joint infection.
Question 570
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 45-year-old female undergoes a metal-on-metal hip resurfacing arthroplasty. Two years later, she develops groin pain. Workup reveals an elevated serum cobalt-to-chromium ratio and a solid, cystic mass communicating with the joint. What is the most critical biomechanical risk factor for developing this adverse local tissue reaction (ALTR)?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Acetabular component placed in excessive anteversion and steep inclination
Explanation
Adverse local tissue reactions (ALTR) in metal-on-metal articulations are heavily driven by edge loading. Edge loading is most commonly caused by malposition of the acetabular component, specifically excessive inclination (steep cup) and excessive anteversion.
Question 571
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Which of the following is considered an absolute contraindication to medial unicompartmental knee arthroplasty (UKA) for isolated medial compartment osteoarthritis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Inflammatory arthritis
Explanation
Inflammatory arthritis, such as rheumatoid arthritis, is an absolute contraindication for UKA due to the systemic nature of the disease and high likelihood of progression to other compartments. Modern criteria have relaxed historical contraindications like obesity and older age.
Question 572
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 62-year-old female complains of a painful catch and an audible pop when extending her knee from a flexed position, one year after a posterior-stabilized total knee arthroplasty. What is the most likely pathophysiologic cause of this specific complication?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Fibrous nodule at the superior pole of the patella engaging the intercondylar box
Explanation
Patellar clunk syndrome is a complication classically associated with posterior-stabilized TKA designs. It occurs when a fibrous nodule forms at the superior pole of the patella and catches in the intercondylar box of the femoral component during knee extension.
Question 573
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
An 80-year-old female with a cemented total hip arthroplasty sustains a fall. Radiographs show a periprosthetic femur fracture around the tip of the stem. The stem remains well-fixed within the cement mantle. What is the Vancouver classification and appropriate treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Type B1; Open reduction internal fixation with cables and a locking plate
Explanation
A fracture around or just below the stem tip with a well-fixed stem is classified as Vancouver Type B1. Because the stem is stable, the gold standard treatment is open reduction and internal fixation utilizing locking plates and cables, sparing the well-fixed implant.
Question 574
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 45-year-old male presents with a transverse acetabular fracture following a fall. A CT scan confirms a transverse pattern involving both columns. The hip is concentrically reduced, and there is no significant displacement or intra-articular incongruity.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management strategy?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Non-operative management with protected weight-bearing
Explanation
Correct Answer: CNon-operative management is indicated for acetabular fractures with minimal displacement (generally less than 2mm), no intra-articular fragments, and a stable, concentrically reduced hip. Transverse fractures, if undisplaced and stable, can often be managed non-operatively with protected weight-bearing (typically non-weight-bearing for 8-12 weeks) to allow for fracture healing. Open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) is reserved for displaced fractures, significant joint incongruity, or hip instability. Skeletal traction may be used for highly comminuted or significantly displaced fractures awaiting surgery, but not for stable, undisplaced injuries. Total hip arthroplasty (THA) is a salvage procedure for severe post-traumatic arthritis, not an acute fracture treatment. Periacetabular osteotomy is a procedure for hip dysplasia, not acute trauma.
Question 575
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 68-year-old female sustains a low-energy displaced femoral neck fracture (Garden Type III) after a fall at home. She is otherwise healthy and active. What is the most appropriate definitive surgical management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Total hip arthroplasty (THA)
Explanation
For active, healthy elderly patients with displaced femoral neck fractures (Garden III/IV), total hip arthroplasty (THA) generally yields better functional outcomes, lower reoperation rates, and less pain compared to hemiarthroplasty.
Question 576
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 65-year-old female sustains a 4-part proximal humerus fracture. Which of the following anatomical factors is the most critical predictor of avascular necrosis of the humeral head in this setting?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Length of the medial calcar attached to the head fragment
Explanation
The length of the medial calcar (metaphyseal extension) attached to the articular fragment is the most reliable predictor of ischemia. A calcar length of less than 8 mm and disruption of the medial hinge are highly predictive of subsequent humeral head avascular necrosis.
Question 577
Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)
Which of the following anatomic variants is a well-documented intrinsic anatomic risk factor for a non-contact anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Decreased intercondylar notch width
Explanation
A narrow intercondylar notch (decreased notch width index) limits the space for the ACL and is a significant intrinsic risk factor for non-contact ACL injuries. Increased (not decreased) posterior tibial slope is another recognized risk factor.
Question 578
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 45-year-old highly active male undergoes a primary total hip arthroplasty with a ceramic-on-ceramic bearing surface. One year postoperatively, he complains of a loud, audible squeaking sound from the hip during deep flexion. Which component position is most highly associated with this phenomenon?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Acetabular cup abduction angle of 60 degrees
Explanation
Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic THA is closely associated with edge loading of the components. This often occurs when the acetabular cup is placed in excessive abduction (e.g., 60 degrees) or inadequate anteversion.
Question 579
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Aseptic loosening is the most common cause of failure in total joint arthroplasty and is driven by the biologic response to particulate wear debris. Which cell type is primarily responsible for phagocytosing these particles and subsequently releasing osteolytic cytokines like TNF-alpha and IL-1?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Osteoclasts
Explanation
Macrophages phagocytose particulate wear debris (such as polyethylene particles) and become activated. They release pro-inflammatory cytokines that stimulate osteoclast-mediated bone resorption, leading to aseptic loosening.
Question 580
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
During a primary total knee arthroplasty, a surgeon utilizes spacer blocks to evaluate the ligamentous gaps before making the final bony cuts. The knee is perfectly balanced and stable in 90 degrees of flexion, but it is too tight in full extension. Which of the following surgical steps is most appropriate to balance the gaps?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Resect more distal femur
Explanation
Resecting more bone from the distal femur exclusively enlarges the extension gap without affecting the flexion gap. Resecting more proximal tibia would erroneously enlarge both the flexion and extension gaps equally.
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