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Question 561

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During a primary total knee arthroplasty, after making the standard initial bone cuts, trial components are placed. The knee is found to be tight in flexion but well-balanced in extension. Which of the following surgical adjustments is most appropriate to balance the gaps?

. Recut the distal femur to remove an additional 2 mm of bone
. Release the posterior capsule
. Increase the posterior slope of the tibial cut
. Downsize the femoral component and augment the posterior condyles
. Release the medial collateral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increase the posterior slope of the tibial cut


Explanation

A knee that is tight in flexion but well-balanced in extension requires an adjustment that selectively increases the flexion gap. Increasing the posterior tibial slope will open the flexion gap without significantly altering the extension gap.

Question 562

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 60-year-old female suffers recurrent posterior dislocations following a primary total hip arthroplasty performed via a posterior approach. Radiographs demonstrate the acetabular cup is positioned in 45 degrees of inclination and 0 degrees of anteversion. What is the primary mechanical cause of her instability?

. Excessive cup inclination
. Insufficient cup anteversion
. Excessive femoral offset
. Global abductor insufficiency
. Impingement from heterotopic ossification

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Insufficient cup anteversion


Explanation

The standard safe zone for acetabular component positioning is approximately 40 +/- 10 degrees of inclination and 15 +/- 10 degrees of anteversion. A cup with 0 degrees of anteversion is retroverted, which heavily predisposes the hip to posterior dislocation.

Question 563

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 65-year-old man presents with knee pain 2 years after a total knee arthroplasty. Synovial fluid aspiration yields a white blood cell count of 3,500 cells/ยตL with 75% neutrophils. Which of the following is considered a major criterion for definitive periprosthetic joint infection (PJI) according to the 2018 International Consensus Meeting (ICM) criteria?

. Elevated synovial WBC count greater than 3,000 cells/ยตL
. Positive alpha-defensin test
. A single positive intraoperative tissue culture
. Two positive cultures of the same organism from joint aspirates or tissue
. Elevated serum C-reactive protein (CRP)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Two positive cultures of the same organism from joint aspirates or tissue


Explanation

According to the 2018 ICM criteria, a major criterion for PJI is either two positive periprosthetic cultures with the same organism or the presence of a sinus tract communicating with the joint. The other options are considered minor criteria.

Question 564

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 55-year-old female undergoes a total hip arthroplasty utilizing a ceramic-on-ceramic bearing. One year postoperatively, she complains of a high-pitched squeaking noise during gait. Which component factor is most strongly associated with the development of this phenomenon?

. Excessive acetabular anteversion
. Excessive acetabular retroversion
. Decreased femoral offset
. Femoral stem subsidence
. Excessive acetabular cup inclination leading to edge loading

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Excessive acetabular cup inclination leading to edge loading


Explanation

Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic total hip arthroplasty is most heavily linked to edge loading of the bearing surfaces. This is typically caused by component malposition, specifically excessive acetabular cup inclination or malversion.

Question 565

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Which wear mechanism is primarily responsible for the generation of submicron polyethylene wear debris, which ultimately triggers macrophage-mediated osteolysis in total hip arthroplasty?

. Abrasive wear
. Adhesive wear
. Fatigue wear
. Third-body wear
. Corrosive wear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Adhesive wear


Explanation

Adhesive wear occurs when asperities on the femoral head momentarily 'micro-weld' to the polyethylene surface, shearing off submicron particles during joint motion. These tiny submicron particles are the primary instigators of the macrophage cascade leading to periprosthetic osteolysis.

Question 566

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 68-year-old female sustains a posterior dislocation of her total hip arthroplasty 4 weeks postoperatively. The index procedure was performed via a posterior approach. She is successfully closed reduced in the emergency department. What is the most common etiology for early posterior instability in this specific clinical setting?

. Severe abductor musculature deficiency
. Catastrophic polyethylene wear
. Component malposition, such as acetabular retroversion
. Significant leg length discrepancy
. Iliopsoas tendon impingement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Component malposition, such as acetabular retroversion


Explanation

Early dislocation (within the first few months) following a total hip arthroplasty is most frequently associated with component malposition. For posterior dislocations, this typically involves inadequate acetabular anteversion (retroversion) or inadequate offset.

Question 567

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 62-year-old man presents with progressive groin pain 5 years after receiving a modern metal-on-polyethylene total hip arthroplasty. Serum cobalt and chromium levels are significantly elevated, and an MRI with MARS sequencing reveals a large fluid collection around the hip joint. What is the most likely source of the elevated metal ions?

. Bearing surface abrasive wear
. Fretting of the highly porous acetabular shell
. Mechanochemical fretting and corrosion at the modular head-neck taper (trunnionosis)
. Gross femoral stem subsidence within the cement mantle
. Accelerated polyethylene oxidation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Mechanochemical fretting and corrosion at the modular head-neck taper (trunnionosis)


Explanation

In a metal-on-polyethylene THA presenting with Adverse Local Tissue Reaction (ALTR) and elevated cobalt/chromium levels, the source of the metal ions is the modular junction. This phenomenon, known as trunnionosis, involves fretting and crevice corrosion at the head-neck taper.

Question 568

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Following a total hip arthroplasty via a posterior approach, a patient experiences recurrent posterior dislocations. Radiographs reveal the acetabular component is placed in 30 degrees of abduction and 5 degrees of retroversion. What is the most appropriate definitive management?

. Revision of the femoral component to increase offset
. Placement of a constrained liner
. Revision of the acetabular component to increase anteversion
. Prescribing a hip abduction brace for 12 weeks
. Conversion to a bipolar hemiarthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Revision of the acetabular component to increase anteversion


Explanation

The acetabular component is retroverted, predisposing the patient to posterior dislocation. The target for cup placement is typically 15-20 degrees of anteversion and 40-45 degrees of abduction, making cup revision the definitive treatment.

Question 569

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 68-year-old male presents with a painful total knee arthroplasty 3 years post-operatively. Synovial fluid analysis reveals a WBC count of 4,500 cells/mcL with 85% PMNs. Alpha-defensin is positive. No sinus tract is present. According to the MSIS criteria, what is the diagnostic conclusion?

. The patient has aseptic loosening
. The diagnosis of periprosthetic joint infection is definitive
. A second positive aspiration is required for definitive diagnosis
. Intravenous antibiotics should be started before intraoperative cultures are taken
. The WBC count is too low to suggest PJI

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The diagnosis of periprosthetic joint infection is definitive


Explanation

According to major PJI diagnostic criteria, a positive alpha-defensin test combined with an elevated synovial WBC count (>3000 cells/mcL) and PMN percentage (>80%) in the chronic setting definitively confirms periprosthetic joint infection.

Question 570

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 45-year-old female undergoes a metal-on-metal hip resurfacing arthroplasty. Two years later, she develops groin pain. Workup reveals an elevated serum cobalt-to-chromium ratio and a solid, cystic mass communicating with the joint. What is the most critical biomechanical risk factor for developing this adverse local tissue reaction (ALTR)?

. Male gender
. Large femoral head size
. Acetabular component placed in excessive anteversion and steep inclination
. Use of an un-cemented femoral component
. Prior history of developmental dysplasia of the hip

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Acetabular component placed in excessive anteversion and steep inclination


Explanation

Adverse local tissue reactions (ALTR) in metal-on-metal articulations are heavily driven by edge loading. Edge loading is most commonly caused by malposition of the acetabular component, specifically excessive inclination (steep cup) and excessive anteversion.

Question 571

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Which of the following is considered an absolute contraindication to medial unicompartmental knee arthroplasty (UKA) for isolated medial compartment osteoarthritis?

. Patient age greater than 75 years
. Fixed varus deformity of 10 degrees
. Intact anterior cruciate ligament
. Inflammatory arthritis
. Body mass index of 35

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Inflammatory arthritis


Explanation

Inflammatory arthritis, such as rheumatoid arthritis, is an absolute contraindication for UKA due to the systemic nature of the disease and high likelihood of progression to other compartments. Modern criteria have relaxed historical contraindications like obesity and older age.

Question 572

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 62-year-old female complains of a painful catch and an audible pop when extending her knee from a flexed position, one year after a posterior-stabilized total knee arthroplasty. What is the most likely pathophysiologic cause of this specific complication?

. Undersized patellar component
. Fibrous nodule at the superior pole of the patella engaging the intercondylar box
. Overhanging medial tibial plateau component
. Excessive internal rotation of the femoral component
. Failure of the polyethylene tibial insert

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Fibrous nodule at the superior pole of the patella engaging the intercondylar box


Explanation

Patellar clunk syndrome is a complication classically associated with posterior-stabilized TKA designs. It occurs when a fibrous nodule forms at the superior pole of the patella and catches in the intercondylar box of the femoral component during knee extension.

Question 573

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

An 80-year-old female with a cemented total hip arthroplasty sustains a fall. Radiographs show a periprosthetic femur fracture around the tip of the stem. The stem remains well-fixed within the cement mantle. What is the Vancouver classification and appropriate treatment?

. Type B1; Open reduction internal fixation with cables and a locking plate
. Type B2; Revision to a long-stem cementless component
. Type B3; Revision with a proximal femoral replacement
. Type C; Open reduction internal fixation with a lateral plate
. Type A(G); Conservative management with protected weight-bearing

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Type B1; Open reduction internal fixation with cables and a locking plate


Explanation

A fracture around or just below the stem tip with a well-fixed stem is classified as Vancouver Type B1. Because the stem is stable, the gold standard treatment is open reduction and internal fixation utilizing locking plates and cables, sparing the well-fixed implant.

Question 574

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 45-year-old male presents with a transverse acetabular fracture following a fall. A CT scan confirms a transverse pattern involving both columns. The hip is concentrically reduced, and there is no significant displacement or intra-articular incongruity.

Which of the following is the most appropriate management strategy?

. Immediate open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF)
. Skeletal traction followed by delayed ORIF
. Non-operative management with protected weight-bearing
. Total hip arthroplasty (THA)
. Periacetabular osteotomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Non-operative management with protected weight-bearing


Explanation

Correct Answer: CNon-operative management is indicated for acetabular fractures with minimal displacement (generally less than 2mm), no intra-articular fragments, and a stable, concentrically reduced hip. Transverse fractures, if undisplaced and stable, can often be managed non-operatively with protected weight-bearing (typically non-weight-bearing for 8-12 weeks) to allow for fracture healing. Open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) is reserved for displaced fractures, significant joint incongruity, or hip instability. Skeletal traction may be used for highly comminuted or significantly displaced fractures awaiting surgery, but not for stable, undisplaced injuries. Total hip arthroplasty (THA) is a salvage procedure for severe post-traumatic arthritis, not an acute fracture treatment. Periacetabular osteotomy is a procedure for hip dysplasia, not acute trauma.

Question 575

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 68-year-old female sustains a low-energy displaced femoral neck fracture (Garden Type III) after a fall at home. She is otherwise healthy and active. What is the most appropriate definitive surgical management?
. Cannulated screw fixation
. Hemiarthroplasty (bipolar or unipolar)
. Total hip arthroplasty (THA)
. Dynamic hip screw (DHS)
. Non-operative management with bed rest

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Total hip arthroplasty (THA)


Explanation

For active, healthy elderly patients with displaced femoral neck fractures (Garden III/IV), total hip arthroplasty (THA) generally yields better functional outcomes, lower reoperation rates, and less pain compared to hemiarthroplasty.

Question 576

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 65-year-old female sustains a 4-part proximal humerus fracture. Which of the following anatomical factors is the most critical predictor of avascular necrosis of the humeral head in this setting?

. Length of the medial calcar attached to the head fragment
. Degree of comminution of the greater tuberosity
. Displacement of the lesser tuberosity
. Disruption of the anterior humeral circumflex artery
. Integrity of the rotator interval

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Length of the medial calcar attached to the head fragment


Explanation

The length of the medial calcar (metaphyseal extension) attached to the articular fragment is the most reliable predictor of ischemia. A calcar length of less than 8 mm and disruption of the medial hinge are highly predictive of subsequent humeral head avascular necrosis.

Question 577

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

Which of the following anatomic variants is a well-documented intrinsic anatomic risk factor for a non-contact anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear?

. Decreased posterior tibial slope
. Increased alpha angle
. Decreased intercondylar notch width
. Patella baja
. Increased Q angle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Decreased intercondylar notch width


Explanation

A narrow intercondylar notch (decreased notch width index) limits the space for the ACL and is a significant intrinsic risk factor for non-contact ACL injuries. Increased (not decreased) posterior tibial slope is another recognized risk factor.

Question 578

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 45-year-old highly active male undergoes a primary total hip arthroplasty with a ceramic-on-ceramic bearing surface. One year postoperatively, he complains of a loud, audible squeaking sound from the hip during deep flexion. Which component position is most highly associated with this phenomenon?

. Acetabular cup anteversion of 15 degrees
. Acetabular cup abduction angle of 60 degrees
. Femoral stem anteversion of 15 degrees
. Neutral pelvic tilt
. Decreased global offset

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Acetabular cup abduction angle of 60 degrees


Explanation

Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic THA is closely associated with edge loading of the components. This often occurs when the acetabular cup is placed in excessive abduction (e.g., 60 degrees) or inadequate anteversion.

Question 579

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Aseptic loosening is the most common cause of failure in total joint arthroplasty and is driven by the biologic response to particulate wear debris. Which cell type is primarily responsible for phagocytosing these particles and subsequently releasing osteolytic cytokines like TNF-alpha and IL-1?

. Osteoblasts
. Osteoclasts
. Macrophages
. Fibroblasts
. Lymphocytes

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Osteoclasts


Explanation

Macrophages phagocytose particulate wear debris (such as polyethylene particles) and become activated. They release pro-inflammatory cytokines that stimulate osteoclast-mediated bone resorption, leading to aseptic loosening.

Question 580

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During a primary total knee arthroplasty, a surgeon utilizes spacer blocks to evaluate the ligamentous gaps before making the final bony cuts. The knee is perfectly balanced and stable in 90 degrees of flexion, but it is too tight in full extension. Which of the following surgical steps is most appropriate to balance the gaps?

. Downsize the femoral component
. Resect more distal femur
. Resect more proximal tibia
. Upsize the femoral component
. Release the posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Resect more distal femur


Explanation

Resecting more bone from the distal femur exclusively enlarges the extension gap without affecting the flexion gap. Resecting more proximal tibia would erroneously enlarge both the flexion and extension gaps equally.