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Question 4961

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
What is the most common complication after a total hip replacement done through the anterior (Smith-Peterson) approach?
. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve injury
. Heterotopic ossification
. Femoral nerve palsy
. Anterior dislocation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve injury


Explanation

The incidence of lateral femoral cutaneous nerve injury is much higher than that of other complications after anterior-approach total hip replacement. This injury is usually clinically inconsequential, presenting as thigh numbness.

Question 4962

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
The anteroposterior pelvis radiograph of a 58-year-old woman shows chronic hip pain and a clunking sensation 18 months after hip surgery. Laboratory test findings are negative for infection. What is the most appropriate treatment?
. Revision total hip arthroplasty
. Trochanteric bursa injection
. Acetabular component revision
. A course of physical therapy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Revision total hip arthroplasty


Explanation

The radiograph shows a metal-on-metal hip resurfacing arthroplasty. The acetabular component is malpositioned in excessive abduction, which may explain the clunking symptoms and be allowing the joint to subluxate. The best option is to convert this failed surface replacement to a conventional total hip arthroplasty.

Question 4963

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Figures 75a through 75c are the radiographs and CT scan of a 58-year-old woman who underwent cementless left total hip arthroplasty. Nine months after surgery, she continued to have groin pain when she actively flexed her hip. She had trouble walking up stairs and getting out of her car.

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What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Trochanteric bursitis
. Femoral component loosening
. Iliopsoas tendonitis
. Acetabular component loosening

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Trochanteric bursitis


Explanation

There are a number of possible causes of groin pain after total hip replacement, but an exact diagnosis may remain elusive in some patients. Infection should be ruled out with laboratory studies and, if indicated,diagnostic aspiration of the hip joint. Implant loosening should be evaluated by plain radiograph and bone scan, if indicated. Synovitis resulting from wear debris should be considered in patients with polyethylene liners who experience late-onset symptoms, or in any patient with a metal-on-metal bearing. This patient’s symptoms are classic for iliopsoas tendonitis. Physical examination usually reveals pain and weakness with resisted hip flexion. A cross-table lateral radiograph and CT scan show that the anterior edge of the acetabulum protrudes beyond the anterior wall, thereby acting as a source of iliopsoas tendon irritation. In such cases, acetabular component revision and repositioning is indicated. Fluoroscopic-guided iliopsoas cortisone injection can help to establish the diagnosis and relieve groin pain. If the acetabular component is well-positioned, then iliopsoas tenotomy should be considered.

Question 4964

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Figures 75a through 75c are the radiographs and CT scan of a 58-year-old woman who underwent cementless left total hip arthroplasty. Nine months after surgery, she continued to have groin pain when she actively flexed her hip. She had trouble walking up stairs and getting out of her car.

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This patient failed a course of appropriate nonsurgical treatment. What is the next step in definitive treatment?

. Acetabular component revision
. Femoral component revision
. Acetabular liner exchange
. Trochanteric bursectomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Acetabular component revision


Explanation

There are a number of possible causes of groin pain after total hip replacement, but an exact diagnosis may remain elusive in some patients. Infection should be ruled out with laboratory studies and, if indicated,diagnostic aspiration of the hip joint. Implant loosening should be evaluated by plain radiograph and bone scan, if indicated. Synovitis resulting from wear debris should be considered in patients with polyethylene liners who experience late-onset symptoms, or in any patient with a metal-on-metal bearing. This patient’s symptoms are classic for iliopsoas tendonitis. Physical examination usually reveals pain and weakness with resisted hip flexion. A cross-table lateral radiograph and CT scan show that the anterior edge of the acetabulum protrudes beyond the anterior wall, thereby acting as a source of iliopsoas tendon irritation. In such cases, acetabular component revision and repositioning is indicated. Fluoroscopic-guided iliopsoas cortisone injection can help to establish the diagnosis and relieve groin pain. If the acetabular component is well-positioned, then iliopsoas tenotomy should be considered.

Question 4965

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
What is the most effective method to increase range of motion to impingement during total hip arthroplasty?
. Increase neck length with a skirted component
. Increase femoral head diameter
. Decrease femoral neck offset
. Use an elevated lip liner

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increase femoral head diameter


Explanation

Increasing the diameter of the femoral head when the diameter of the femoral neck remains the same increases the range of motion to impingement and hip stability. Femoral heads with neck skirts impinge early and have less range of motion.

Question 4966

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
What factor is associated with high wear and elevated serum metal ion levels after metal-on-metal resurfacing hip arthroplasty?
. Retroversion of the femoral component
. Acetabular anteversion more than 20 degrees
. Acetabular inclination more than 50 degrees
. Recurrent dislocation of the hip prosthesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Acetabular inclination more than 50 degrees


Explanation

A high level of acetabular inclination over the Lewinnek safe zone of 50 degrees has been associated with high levels of chrome and cobalt ions. This may be related to the fact that wear may be increased by the uncoverage of the implant.

Question 4967

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
After undergoing elective knee arthroplasty, which risk factor is most likely to cause a symptomatic pulmonary embolus?
. Female gender
. Previous knee surgery
. High preadmission blood glucose
. History of coronary artery disease

Correct Answer & Explanation

. High preadmission blood glucose


Explanation

Diabetes mellitus and high blood glucose levels have been shown to increase risk for perioperative complications and symptomatic pulmonary embolism in patients undergoing arthroplasty. Other risk factors include a body mass index higher than 30 and bilateral knee arthroplasty. Neither coronary artery disease, previous knee surgery, nor female gender has been shown to increase risk.

Question 4968

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 72-year-old patient fell 3 weeks after undergoing a total hip arthroplasty using cementless fixation of the femoral component. She sustained a comminuted Vancouver type B-2 fracture with displacement of the calcar fragment. What is the best treatment option?
. Revision using a proximal femoral replacement prosthesis
. Revision using a long-stem femoral prosthesis along with cerclage fixation
. Open reduction internal fixation using a locking plate with strut graft
. Protected weight bearing with abduction bracing

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Revision using a long-stem femoral prosthesis along with cerclage fixation


Explanation

A Vancouver type B-2 periprosthetic fracture pattern (between the lesser trochanter and the tip of the femoral component) frequently compromises stem fixation. This patient’s stem fixation status was not stable because the stem was inserted only 3 weeks before the fracture occurred. The most effective treatment for Vancouver type B-2 fractures is revision with a long stem to achieve distal diaphyseal fixation, along with fixation of the fracture using cables or wires with or without strut graft based on the quality and quantity of the bone stock.

Question 4969

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Figure 83a is the radiograph of a previously active patient with pain in her lower lumbar spine region and lateral hip 6 months after a cementless hip arthroplasty. What is the most likely cause of this patient’s symptoms?
. Increased hip joint offset
. Increased leg length
. Increased hip joint offset and leg length
. Increased leg length but no increase in offset

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increased hip joint offset and leg length


Explanation

The patient has an approximate 1-cm increase in leg length and a 1-cm increase in offset (Figure 83b). A transischial line intersecting the lesser trochanters shows a 1.14-cm difference in leg length. The lateral distance from the pubic midline to the medial femoral neck shows a difference in lateral offset of 1.1 cm. This has resulted in pelvic obliquity and an apparent leg length discrepancy in addition to a true leg length discrepancy.

Question 4970

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 65-year-old woman has had 6 months of activity-related pain in her 15-year-old hip replacement. Her radiograph reveals an eccentric position of the ball head within the acetabulum. She has minimal periacetabular osteolysis, and her uncemented acetabular and femoral components are well fixed. What is the most appropriate treatment?
. Revision of the acetabular component with retention of the femoral component
. Revision of both acetabular and femoral components
. Liner and ball head exchange
. Observation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Liner and ball head exchange


Explanation

Well-fixed components in the presence of minimal osteolysis and a worn acetabular polyethylene liner in a symptomatic patient should be treated with liner and ball head exchange. Revision of either or both of the well-fixed and otherwise well-functioning components is unnecessary and introduces the possibility for additional complications. Observation is a suboptimal choice considering that significant wear is seen and the patient is symptomatic.

Question 4971

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
When compared to a general population of patients undergoing knee arthroplasty, patients with ankylosing spondylitis are at higher risk for developing what condition?
. Stiffness and ossification
. Infection
. Component loosening
. No heightened risk; they can expect the same outcome as patients with primary osteoarthritis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Stiffness and ossification


Explanation

Patients with ankylosing spondylitis experience pain relief and improved function after total knee replacement, but a number of studies have shown an increased risk for knee stiffness and heterotopic ossification in this subgroup. Patients should be advised that their underlying condition could make them more likely to experience this complication.

Question 4972

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Figure 88 is the radiograph of an 84-year-old man who had bilateral total knee replacements 14 years ago. For 3 years he has had pain and swelling in his right knee. Radiographs reveal a progressive valgus deformity of the knee. The patient wants to return to full function and ambulate throughout his household with minimal surgical risk. Which of the following descriptions best characterizes the polyethylene particles liberated from this patient’s knee in comparison to wear particles found in a patient who undergoes total hip arthroplasty?
. Smaller and less reactive
. Smaller and more reactive
. Larger and less reactive
. Larger and more reactive

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Larger and less reactive


Explanation

The particles isolated from the knee are larger and less reactive. Wear in a total knee replacement prosthesis differs from that in a total hip replacement. Wear is the result of pitting and delamination; there are not submicron wear debris particles as one would find in the hip. Because of this patient’s age and medical risks, polyethylene exchange is the best decision. The components appear to be well-fixed, and progressive valgus deformity is caused by asymmetric polyethylene wear.

Question 4973

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Figure 88 is the radiograph of an 84-year-old man who had bilateral total knee replacements 14 years ago. For 3 years he has had pain and swelling in his right knee. Radiographs reveal a progressive valgus deformity of the knee. The patient wants to return to full function and ambulate throughout his household with minimal surgical risk. What is the most appropriate treatment for this condition?
. Revision of both the femoral and tibial components
. Polyethylene exchange
. Tibia component revision
. Osteotomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Polyethylene exchange


Explanation

The particles isolated from the knee are larger and less reactive. Wear in a total knee replacement prosthesis differs from that in a total hip replacement. Wear is the result of pitting and delamination; there are not submicron wear debris particles as one would find in the hip. Because of this patient’s age and medical risks, polyethylene exchange is the best decision. The components appear to be well-fixed, and progressive valgus deformity is caused by asymmetric polyethylene wear.

Question 4974

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 76-year-old woman underwent an uncomplicated total knee arthroplasty (TKA) 7 years ago. She has had a 4-month history of pain and swelling. Radiographs reveal a global large lucency under the tibial component. Comparison of older radiographs reveals gross migration and subsidence of the tibial component. Further testing reveals an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein level, as well as a synovial white blood cell count > 15000 cells/µL. Synovial fluid cultures are negative for bacterial growth at 48 hours. What is the most appropriate next step?
. Synovial fluid gram stain
. Tissue samples sent for culture and frozen section
. Revision of both components with antibiotic cement and stems
. Removal of the tibial component and retention of the femoral component if well fixed and appropriately positioned

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tissue samples sent for culture and frozen section


Explanation

In this scenario, suspicion for a periprosthetic joint infection is high. The synovial fluid WBC count is elevated and the synovial fluid culture result may be a false negative. The AAOS Clinical Practice Guideline, The Diagnosis of Periprosthetic Joint Infections of the Hip and Knee, recommends strongly against the use of gram stain and strongly in favor of multiple culture and frozen sections to aid in the diagnosis of infection. Considering the chronicity of the infection, removal of both components is indicated.

Question 4975

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 76-year-old woman underwent an uncomplicated total knee arthroplasty (TKA) 7 years ago. She has had a 4-month history of pain and swelling. Radiographs reveal a global large lucency under the tibial component. Comparison of older radiographs reveals gross migration and subsidence of the tibial component. Further testing reveals an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein level, as well as a synovial white blood cell count > 15,000 cells/µL. Synovial fluid cultures are negative for bacterial growth at 48 hours. Frozen sections reveal 17 neutrophils per high-power field. What is the most appropriate definitive surgical treatment associated with the highest chance for successful eradication of infection?
. Irrigation and debridement with tibial revision
. Irrigation and debridement with placement of an intra-articular antibiotic pump
. Resection arthroplasty with placement of an antibiotic spacer
. One-stage exchange

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Resection arthroplasty with placement of an antibiotic spacer


Explanation

In this scenario, suspicion for a periprosthetic joint infection is high. The synovial fluid WBC count is elevated and the synovial fluid culture result may be a false negative. The AAOS Clinical Practice Guideline, The Diagnosis of Periprosthetic Joint Infections of the Hip and Knee, recommends strongly against the use of gram stain and strongly in favor of multiple culture and frozen sections to aid in the diagnosis of infection. Considering the chronicity of the infection, removal of both components is indicated, which is the first stage of a two-stage exchange (resection arthroplasty with placement of an antibiotic spacer).

Question 4976

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 68-year-old woman underwent an uncemented medial/lateral tapered femoral placement during a total hip arthroplasty. The orthopaedic surgeon noticed a nondisplaced vertical fracture in the calcar region of the femoral neck with final implant insertion. What is the most appropriate treatment?

. Removal of the press-fit implant and cementing of the same femoral stem
. Removal of the uncemented femoral component and placement of a revision modular taperfluted femoral stem
. Removal of the implant, placement of a cerclage cable around the femoral neck above the lesser trochanter, and reinsertion of the implant
. Final seating of the uncemented femoral component without additional measures

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Removal of the press-fit implant and cementing of the same femoral stem


Explanation

The recognized treatment for a proximal periprosthetic fracture is to first identify the extent and then optimize the correction. Several studies indicate that proximal cerclage wiring is adequate to create“barrel hoop” stability of the proximal femur. Braided cables offer superior stability compared to twisted wires or Luque wires. Finally, the appropriate postoperative treatment is protected weight bearing for 6 weeks, with periodic radiographs taken at 2-week intervals. Other options such as cementing the femoral stem and using a revision arthroplasty device are indicated for unstable fractures.

Question 4977

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
This is the radiograph of a patient who underwent component removal, insertion of an antibiotic spacer, and recent completion of 6 weeks of intravenous antibiotic therapy. The patient’s C-reactive protein (CRP) and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) have decreased and are now within defined limits. The skin is supple and the patient has a range of motion between 10 and 70 degrees. What is the most appropriate next step?
. Two weeks off of antibiotics (antibiotic holiday), followed by knee joint aspiration
. Continued observation for 6 months after surgery to make sure the infection has resolved
. Joint aspiration for culture and cell count at the time of completion of IV antibiotic therapy
. Antibiotic spacer exchange

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Two weeks off of antibiotics (antibiotic holiday), followed by knee joint aspiration


Explanation

The situation described here is consistent with a successful treatment for deep infection. If the patient’s knee aspiration reveals no organisms and the CRP and ESR trend toward normal, the patient is a candidate for a second-stage revision knee arthroplasty. A 2-week antibiotic holiday is necessary to obtain accurate culture results either with aspiration or soft-tissue specimens at the time of second-stage revision TKA. There is no evidence that waiting for up to 6 months provides a lower recurrence rate, and there may be long-term problems with a spacer left in place for 6 months, such as breakage, instability, or loosening.

Question 4978

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
What factor is associated with decreased range of motion due to impingement?
. Skirted modular femoral head
. Trapezoidal neck geometry
. Vertical cup inclination of 40 to 55 degrees
. Anteversion of 10 to 20 degrees of both the stem and cup

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Skirted modular femoral head


Explanation

The use of modular femoral stems and acetabular implants have increased the number of head, neck, and liner designs, but the features of recent designs can cause intra-articular prosthetic impingement within the arc of motion required to perform daily activities. Impingement may lead to limited motion, increased wear, osteolysis, and subluxation or dislocation. Minimizing impingement involves avoiding skirted heads, matching the femoral head with an appropriate acetabular implant, maximizing the head-to-neck ratio and, when possible, using a chamfered acetabular liner and a trapezoidal, rather than circular, neck cross-section.

Question 4979

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 68-year-old woman undergoes an uncomplicated total knee replacement through a midline incision that is extended distally to join a previous incision from a high-tibial osteotomy done 12 years previously. Despite relief of pain and appropriate knee mobility at 2 weeks, drainage continues from the distal part of the wound. What is the most appropriate next step in treatment?
. Oral cephalexin while the wound heals
. Vacuum suction drain applied over the draining part
. Intravenous antibiotics and reassess the knee in 24 hours
. Urgent open debridement of the knee, cultures, and evaluation of inflammatory laboratory data

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Urgent open debridement of the knee, cultures, and evaluation of inflammatory laboratory data


Explanation

Drainage from a knee after arthroplasty can be ominous; here, a previous incision was made for an osteotomy, possibly compromising wound healing. At 2 weeks, persistent wound drainage is not expected and warrants urgent attention with surgical debridement, cultures, and a baseline check of inflammatory laboratory data. Intravenous antibiotics can be started while awaiting cultures, but oral or intravenous antibiotics alone are not sufficient and a vacuum drain is not indicated in this situation.

Question 4980

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Three years after undergoing a metal-on-polyethylene total hip arthroplasty, a 72-year-old woman develops pain with weight bearing and rest. Hip flexion and internal rotation is associated with pain. Radiographs show no evidence of loosening. What is the most appropriate next step in this evaluation?
. Bone scan
. White blood cell (WBC) count
. Labeled white cell scan
. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C-reactive protein (CRP) levels

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C-reactive protein (CRP) levels


Explanation

The ESR is a sensitive serologic indicator of inflammation; however, it is less specific for infection. Other noninfectious conditions may cause an elevated ESR. The CRP is a specific indicator of infection, which may be transiently elevated after uncomplicated total hip arthroplasty, but usually returns to a normal range within 1 to 2 weeks of surgery. If both the ESR and CRP are elevated, there is a high likelihood that a painful hip replacement is infected, and joint aspiration is indicated.