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Question 4241

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 50-year-old female with known syringomyelia presents with advanced Charcot arthropathy of the glenohumeral joint, experiencing severe instability and progressive loss of function that has failed extensive conservative management.

If surgical intervention is absolutely necessary, which procedure is generally considered the most appropriate salvage option despite high complication rates?

. Total shoulder arthroplasty
. Hemiarthroplasty
. Shoulder arthrodesis
. Arthroscopic capsular plication
. Resection arthroplasty without fusion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Shoulder arthrodesis


Explanation

In true neuropathic (Charcot) joints, standard joint replacement (arthroplasty) is strongly contraindicated due to extreme rates of early loosening and failure. Shoulder arthrodesis is the preferred surgical salvage procedure for severe instability, though pseudoarthrosis and hardware failure rates remain high.

Question 4242

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 45-year-old patient with known syringomyelia presents with massive, painless swelling and instability of the right shoulder. Radiographs demonstrate severe articular destruction, loose bodies, and debris consistent with a neuropathic joint.

Which of the following mechanisms best explains this joint pathology?

. Chronic repetitive microtrauma due to loss of protective nociception
. Direct bacterial seeding of the joint space from a systemic source
. Autoimmune targeting of synovial tissue with pannus formation
. Avascular necrosis secondary to sympathetic nervous system dysfunction
. Rapidly progressive osteoarthritis due to genetic collagen defects

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Chronic repetitive microtrauma due to loss of protective nociception


Explanation

Neuropathic (Charcot) arthropathy in syringomyelia results from a loss of deep pain and proprioceptive sensation. This allows for repeated, unperceived joint microtrauma, leading to progressive and severe joint destruction.

Question 4243

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A 5-year-old girl with active, untreated oligoarticular JIA affecting solely her left knee is evaluated in the orthopedic clinic. Which of the following growth disturbances is most likely to be observed in the affected limb during the active inflammatory phase?

. Premature physeal closure resulting in severe shortening of the left leg
. Longitudinal overgrowth of the left leg due to chronic hyperemia
. Progressive varus deformity of the left knee
. Severe patella alta with extensor mechanism rupture
. Posterior subluxation of the left tibia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Longitudinal overgrowth of the left leg due to chronic hyperemia


Explanation

In the early, active phase of JIA involving a large joint like the knee, chronic inflammation and hyperemia stimulate the adjacent physes. This frequently leads to accelerated longitudinal bone growth and an ipsilateral leg length discrepancy (affected leg is longer).

Question 4244

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

In patients with severe, long-standing Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA) undergoing Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA), the surgeon must anticipate distinct anatomic challenges. Which of the following is most commonly encountered in this patient population?

. Excessive femoral offset with coxa vara
. Dense, sclerotic bone requiring specialized reamers
. Large, capacious medullary canals
. Protrusio acetabuli and excessively small bone anatomy
. Anterior hip dislocation due to extreme soft tissue laxity

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Protrusio acetabuli and excessively small bone anatomy


Explanation

Patients with severe JIA often suffer from early physeal closure and systemic growth retardation, leading to "miniature" bone anatomy that requires custom or very small implants. They also frequently develop osteopenia and protrusio acetabuli due to chronic inflammation.

Question 4245

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 65-year-old man presents with end-stage knee osteoarthritis and a remote history of a midshaft femur fracture treated nonoperatively, leaving him with a symptomatic coronal plane deformity. When planning a primary total knee arthroplasty (TKA), what is the generally accepted maximum limit of extra-articular coronal plane femoral deformity that can be managed safely with intra-articular bone cuts and soft-tissue balancing?

. 5 degrees
. 10 degrees
. 20 degrees
. 30 degrees
. 45 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 20 degrees


Explanation

Intra-articular correction of an extra-articular deformity during TKA is generally acceptable for coronal femoral deformities up to 20 degrees. Beyond this threshold, collateral ligament origins are excessively altered, requiring a simultaneous or staged extra-articular corrective osteotomy.

Question 4246

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During a primary total knee arthroplasty, the surgeon inadvertently places the femoral component in 5 degrees of internal rotation relative to the surgical transepicondylar axis. What is the most likely biomechanical consequence of this malpositioning?

. Medial patellar subluxation
. Lateral patellar subluxation
. Increased lateral flexion gap laxity
. Decreased patellofemoral contact pressure
. Cam-post impingement in extension

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral patellar subluxation


Explanation

Internal rotation of the femoral component medializes the trochlear groove relative to the extensor mechanism. This increases the Q angle and heavily predisposes the patella to lateral tracking and subluxation.

Question 4247

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

During a total knee arthroplasty (TKA) gap balancing procedure, the surgeon notes that the knee is well-balanced and symmetric in extension, but symmetrically tight in 90 degrees of flexion. Which of the following is the most appropriate step to achieve balanced gaps?

. Resect more distal femur
. Release the posterior capsule
. Downsize the femoral component and augment the anterior femur
. Decrease the posterior tibial slope
. Upsize the femoral component

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Downsize the femoral component and augment the anterior femur


Explanation

A tight flexion gap with a balanced extension gap requires downsizing the femoral component to decrease the posterior condylar offset. Augmenting the anterior femur prevents anterior notching when the femoral component size is reduced.

Question 4248

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Which of the following biomechanical effects is most strongly associated with joint line elevation during a revision total knee arthroplasty?

. Patella alta and increased patellofemoral contact pressures
. Mid-flexion instability due to relative laxity of the collateral ligaments
. Extension gap laxity and recurvatum
. Decreased posterior femoral rollback
. Medial compartment tightness in deep flexion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Mid-flexion instability due to relative laxity of the collateral ligaments


Explanation

Elevating the joint line during TKA moves the joint line closer to the femoral origins of the collateral ligaments. This shortens the functional distance from origin to insertion during mid-flexion, leading to laxity and mid-flexion instability.

Question 4249

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

A 65-year-old woman with advanced primary knee osteoarthritis undergoes a posterior-stabilized (PS) TKA. The surgeon inadvertently internally rotates the tibial component. What is the most likely biomechanical consequence of this malrotation?

. Medial patellar subluxation
. Decreased Q-angle
. Lateral patellar subluxation
. Posterior cam-post impingement
. Tightness of the medial flexion gap

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral patellar subluxation


Explanation

Internal rotation of the tibial component effectively lateralizes the tibial tubercle relative to the center of the prosthesis. This increases the Q-angle and promotes lateral subluxation or dislocation of the patella.

Question 4250

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

A patient with a severe 25-degree valgus knee deformity and a completely incompetent medial collateral ligament (MCL) presents for TKA. Which of the following implant constraints is most appropriate?

. Cruciate-retaining (CR) TKA
. Posterior-stabilized (PS) TKA
. Constrained non-hinged (CCK) TKA
. Rotating hinge TKA
. Unicompartmental knee arthroplasty (UKA)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Rotating hinge TKA


Explanation

A rotating hinge TKA is indicated when there is global ligamentous instability or a completely deficient MCL. A constrained condylar knee (CCK) relies on the structural integrity of the MCL to resist valgus stress and would be prone to failure in this scenario.

Question 4251

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

During a TKA, a measured resection technique is utilized. The surgeon uses the surgical transepicondylar axis (sTEA) to establish femoral component rotation. Which of the following best describes the sTEA?

. A line connecting the most prominent points of the medial and lateral epicondyles.
. A line connecting the lateral epicondylar prominence to the medial epicondylar sulcus.
. A line perpendicular to Whiteside's line.
. A line parallel to the posterior condylar axis.
. A line connecting the adductor tubercle to the lateral epicondyle.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A line connecting the lateral epicondylar prominence to the medial epicondylar sulcus.


Explanation

The surgical transepicondylar axis (sTEA) connects the lateral epicondylar prominence to the medial epicondylar sulcus. It closely approximates the true flexion-extension axis of the knee and dictates neutral femoral component rotation.

Question 4252

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

A 55-year-old male presents with a symptomatic extra-articular distal femoral varus deformity of 15 degrees located 5 cm proximal to the joint line. If the surgeon decides to correct this entirely with an intra-articular bone cut during a TKA, what is the most significant risk?

. Lateral collateral ligament disruption
. Medial collateral ligament disruption
. Excessive joint line elevation
. Patella infera
. Severe extension gap laxity

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medial collateral ligament disruption


Explanation

Compensating for a large distal femoral varus deformity (>10-15 degrees) with a purely intra-articular cut requires a highly valgus distal femoral resection. This can compromise the medial epicondyle and the origin of the MCL, risking iatrogenic MCL disruption.

Question 4253

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

In a posterior-stabilized (PS) TKA, at approximately what angle of flexion does the cam on the femoral component typically engage the tibial post to initiate posterior femoral rollback?

. 10 to 20 degrees
. 30 to 40 degrees
. 70 to 80 degrees
. 100 to 110 degrees
. The cam engages in full extension

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 70 to 80 degrees


Explanation

In standard PS knee designs, the cam-post mechanism typically engages around 70 to 80 degrees of knee flexion. This engagement substitutes for the posterior cruciate ligament, driving the femur posteriorly to optimize clearance and improve maximum flexion.

Question 4254

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

A patient presents with 'patellar clunk syndrome' two years following a TKA. Which implant characteristic and kinematic phase are most classically associated with this condition?

. Cruciate-retaining implant; transitioning from flexion to extension
. Posterior-stabilized implant; transitioning from flexion to extension
. Constrained condylar implant; transitioning from extension to flexion
. Rotating hinge implant; active terminal extension
. Mobile-bearing unicompartmental knee; during deep flexion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior-stabilized implant; transitioning from flexion to extension


Explanation

Patellar clunk syndrome occurs primarily in PS knee designs. A fibrous nodule forms on the undersurface of the quadriceps tendon and catches in the intercondylar box of the femoral component as the knee transitions from flexion into extension.

Question 4255

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

Increasing the posterior slope of the tibial bone cut during a TKA will have which of the following effects on the flexion and extension gaps?

. Increases both flexion and extension gaps equally
. Decreases the flexion gap, increases the extension gap
. Increases the flexion gap, negligible effect on the extension gap
. Decreases both flexion and extension gaps
. Increases the extension gap, negligible effect on the flexion gap

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increases the flexion gap, negligible effect on the extension gap


Explanation

Increasing the posterior slope of the tibial cut removes more bone posteriorly, which selectively increases the volume of the flexion gap. It has a negligible effect on the extension gap, as the anterior tibial cortex resection depth remains largely unchanged.

Question 4256

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

In an excessively thick (overstuffed) patellar component during TKA, which of the following postoperative complications is most directly expected?

. Increased maximum flexion
. Anterior knee pain and decreased range of motion
. Patella alta
. Posterior knee instability
. Medial patellar subluxation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior knee pain and decreased range of motion


Explanation

Overstuffing the patellofemoral joint increases the anteroposterior diameter of the knee, which elevates retinacular tension and quadriceps forces. This routinely results in anterior knee pain, lateral tracking issues, and decreased terminal flexion.

Question 4257

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During pre-operative templating for a TKA on a patient with a 20-degree valgus deformity, the surgeon plans a lateral parapatellar approach. To preserve patellar viability, which critical arterial supply must the surgeon attempt to protect?

. Superior lateral geniculate artery
. Inferior lateral geniculate artery
. Descending genicular artery
. Supreme genicular artery
. Medial superior geniculate artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medial superior geniculate artery


Explanation

A lateral parapatellar approach routinely sacrifices the superior and inferior lateral geniculate arteries. To prevent patellar avascular necrosis, the predominant remaining medial supply, specifically the superior medial geniculate artery, must be meticulously preserved.

Question 4258

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During a primary total knee arthroplasty (TKA), the joint is perfectly balanced in extension but demonstrates a tight flexion gap. Which of the following is the most appropriate corrective action?

. Resect additional distal femur
. Downsize the femoral component
. Use a thicker tibial polyethylene insert
. Perform an extensive release of the medial collateral ligament
. Recut the proximal tibia to decrease posterior slope

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Downsize the femoral component


Explanation

A tight flexion gap with a balanced extension gap indicates the anteroposterior (AP) dimension of the femoral component is too large. Downsizing the femoral component reduces the AP dimension, loosening the flexion gap without affecting the balanced extension gap.

Question 4259

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Internal rotation of the tibial component in a primary total knee arthroplasty primarily leads to which of the following postoperative complications?

. Lateral patellar maltracking
. Medial patellar maltracking
. Mid-flexion instability
. Increased femoral rollback
. Extension gap laxity

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral patellar maltracking


Explanation

Internal rotation of the tibial component effectively externally rotates the tibial tubercle relative to the trochlea. This increases the Q-angle, leading to lateral patellar subluxation, maltracking, and potential anterior knee pain.

Question 4260

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 65-year-old patient presents with end-stage knee osteoarthritis and a 15-degree midshaft femoral varus deformity. When planning a primary TKA using an intra-articular resection alone to correct the mechanical axis, which of the following compromises must be accepted?

. Undersizing of the femoral component
. Aseptic loosening of the tibial baseplate
. Asymmetric joint line elevation and collateral ligament imbalance
. Obligatory posterior cruciate ligament substitution
. Increased posterior condylar offset

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Asymmetric joint line elevation and collateral ligament imbalance


Explanation

Compensating for a significant extra-articular femoral deformity (>10-15 degrees) with intra-articular cuts leads to an asymmetric resection of the condyles. This necessitates asymmetric soft tissue balancing and alters the native joint line, potentially leading to instability.