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Question 3881

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A 55-year-old female presents with groin pain 5 years after a metal-on-metal THA. Labs show elevated cobalt and chromium. MARS MRI shows a large cystic mass. What histologic finding is most characteristic of this condition?

. Neutrophilic infiltrate with fibrin exudate
. Perivascular lymphocytic infiltrate
. Birefringent particles under polarized light
. Sheets of lipid-laden macrophages
. Eosinophilic granulomas

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Perivascular lymphocytic infiltrate


Explanation

Adverse local tissue reactions (ALVAL) in metal-on-metal articulations are characterized by a type IV delayed hypersensitivity response. Histology typically demonstrates a diffuse perivascular lymphocytic infiltrate and tissue necrosis.

Question 3882

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 72-year-old female undergoes revision THA. Intraoperatively, she is found to have complete separation of the superior and inferior hemi-pelvis with severe bone loss. What is the most appropriate acetabular reconstruction strategy?

. Standard hemispherical porous-coated cup with multiple screws
. Cup-cage construct or custom triflange component
. Impaction bone grafting with a cemented cup
. Resection arthroplasty (Girdlestone)
. Threaded, non-porous titanium cup

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cup-cage construct or custom triflange component


Explanation

Pelvic discontinuity with severe bone loss (Paprosky 3B) lacks structural integrity to support a standard cup. Rigid fixation linking the ilium to the ischium via a cup-cage construct, custom triflange, or pelvic distraction is required.

Question 3883

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 40-year-old male falls from a height and sustains a basicervical femoral neck fracture with a highly vertical fracture line (Pauwels type III). What is the preferred surgical treatment to minimize failure?
. Three parallel cancellous screws
. Sliding hip screw (SHS) with an anti-rotation screw
. Cemented hemiarthroplasty
. Total hip arthroplasty
. Non-operative management with skeletal traction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sliding hip screw (SHS) with an anti-rotation screw


Explanation

Pauwels type III femoral neck fractures experience high shear forces, increasing the risk of varus collapse. A sliding hip screw provides superior biomechanical stability against shear compared to parallel cancellous screws.

Question 3884

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A 55-year-old active male undergoes THA with a ceramic-on-ceramic bearing. At 2 years postop, he complains of a squeaking noise with deep flexion. Radiographs show a well-fixed cup. What is the most significant risk factor for this phenomenon?

. High BMI
. Cup anteversion > 25 degrees
. Stem retroversion
. Cup abduction angle > 55 degrees
. Neck-shaft angle < 120 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cup abduction angle > 55 degrees


Explanation

Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic THA is heavily associated with edge loading caused by steep cup placement (abduction > 55 degrees) or malversion. This leads to stripe wear and fluid film lubrication disruption.

Question 3885

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 65-year-old woman presents with chronic hip pain 3 years after a primary total hip arthroplasty. Serum ESR and CRP are elevated. Aspiration yields a synovial fluid WBC of 2,500 cells/uL with 60% PMNs. Which of the following synovial fluid biomarkers provides the highest specificity for confirming periprosthetic joint infection in this scenario?

. Leukocyte esterase
. Interleukin-6
. Alpha-defensin
. C-reactive protein
. Procalcitonin

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Alpha-defensin


Explanation

Alpha-defensin is an antimicrobial peptide released by neutrophils that has extremely high sensitivity and specificity for periprosthetic joint infection. It is not significantly affected by prior antibiotic use or systemic inflammatory conditions.

Question 3886

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 62-year-old man presents with progressive groin pain and swelling 5 years after a metal-on-polyethylene THA utilizing a modular titanium neck. Aspiration yields cloudy fluid with a normal cell count but elevated cobalt and chromium ions. MRI demonstrates a solid pseudotumor. What is the most likely etiology?

. Polyethylene wear
. Ceramic liner fracture
. Trunnionosis
. Infection
. Impingement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Trunnionosis


Explanation

Trunnionosis involves mechanically assisted crevice corrosion at the modular head-neck or neck-stem junction. It presents with adverse local tissue reactions (pseudotumors) and elevated serum metal ions despite normal bearing wear.

Question 3887

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During a primary total hip arthroplasty via a posterolateral approach, increasing the femoral offset without changing the leg length will have which of the following biomechanical effects?

. Decreased abductor muscle tension
. Increased joint reaction force
. Decreased incidence of bony impingement
. Increased risk of sciatic nerve palsy
. Decreased strain on the cemented stem

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increased joint reaction force


Explanation

Increasing femoral offset without changing leg length increases the lever arm of the abductor musculature. This decreases joint reaction forces and improves clearance, thereby reducing bony impingement.

Question 3888

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 35-year-old man with a history of corticosteroid use presents with hip pain. MRI reveals a well-demarcated area of osteonecrosis in the anterosuperior femoral head, involving 25% of the head. Radiographs show no subchondral collapse or joint space narrowing. What is the most appropriate initial surgical management?

. Total hip arthroplasty
. Core decompression
. Vascularized fibular graft
. Proximal femoral osteotomy
. Hip arthrodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Core decompression


Explanation

Core decompression is the standard initial surgical treatment for pre-collapse (Ficat stage II) osteonecrosis of the femoral head. Total hip arthroplasty is reserved for post-collapse disease.

Question 3889

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 70-year-old woman experiences recurrent posterior dislocations of her total hip arthroplasty. Radiographs demonstrate a well-fixed acetabular component with 20 degrees of anteversion and 45 degrees of abduction. The femoral stem is well-fixed with 15 degrees of anteversion. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

. Revision of the acetabular component to increase anteversion
. Revision of the femoral component to increase anteversion
. Exchange to a constrained acetabular liner
. Advancement of the greater trochanter
. Administration of a hip spica cast

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Exchange to a constrained acetabular liner


Explanation

The components are well-aligned (combined anteversion ~35 degrees). A constrained liner is indicated for recurrent instability due to abductor deficiency or soft tissue laxity when components are well-fixed and optimally positioned.

Question 3890

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 78-year-old man sustains a fall 8 years after a primary cementless THA. Radiographs show a spiral fracture around the tip of the femoral stem. The stem is radiographically loose with subsidence, but the bone stock is well-preserved. According to the Vancouver classification, what is the most appropriate treatment?

. Open reduction and internal fixation with a lateral locking plate
. Revision to a long-stem cementless fully porous-coated prosthesis
. Revision to a cemented long-stem prosthesis with strut allografts
. Proximal femoral replacement
. Nonoperative management with skeletal traction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Revision to a long-stem cementless fully porous-coated prosthesis


Explanation

A Vancouver B2 fracture is characterized by a fracture around the stem, a loose stem, but adequate bone stock. The standard of care is revision to a long-stem cementless prosthesis bypassing the fracture by at least two cortical diameters.

Question 3891

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Evaluate the clinical image provided:

A 45-year-old man presents with worsening hip pain. He has a history of childhood hip disease. If total hip arthroplasty is planned, which anatomic challenge is most characteristic when templating for a high hip dislocation (Crowe IV)?

. Excessive femoral anteversion
. True acetabulum located superiorly and laterally
. Enlarged femoral medullary canal
. Excessive acetabular retroversion
. Hypertrophy of the abductor musculature

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Excessive femoral anteversion


Explanation

High hip dislocations (Crowe IV) are anatomically characterized by excessive femoral anteversion, a narrow femoral canal, and a small, shallow true acetabulum. Surgeons must template carefully for modular or conical stems to address this.

Question 3892

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 55-year-old woman undergoes a primary total hip arthroplasty via a direct anterior approach. Postoperatively, she reports numbness and a burning sensation over the anterolateral aspect of her thigh, with normal hip abductor and quadriceps motor function. Injury to which of the following structures is the most likely cause?

. Femoral nerve
. Sciatic nerve
. Superior gluteal nerve
. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve
. Obturator nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve


Explanation

The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve (LFCN) is uniquely at risk during the direct anterior approach to the hip due to its superficial course. Injury results in purely sensory deficits over the anterolateral thigh (meralgia paresthetica) with no motor weakness.

Question 3893

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

After a successful closed reduction of a first-time, uncomplicated posterior dislocation occurring 4 weeks following a primary total hip arthroplasty, what is the most widely recommended initial management?

. Immediate revision of the acetabular component
. Application of an abduction brace and reinforcement of hip precautions
. Revision to a dual mobility bearing system
. Advancement of the greater trochanter
. Closed reduction with immediate spica cast application

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Application of an abduction brace and reinforcement of hip precautions


Explanation

For a first-time posterior dislocation occurring early after a primary THA without component malposition or fracture, conservative management is indicated. This typically consists of closed reduction, a period of immobilization via an abduction brace, and strict hip precautions.

Question 3894

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Compared to highly cross-linked polyethylene, the use of ceramic-on-ceramic bearing surfaces in primary total hip arthroplasty is uniquely associated with an increased risk of which of the following phenomena?

. Particle-induced osteolysis
. High volumetric wear rates
. Audible joint squeaking
. Adverse local tissue reaction (ALTR)
. Galvanic trunnion corrosion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Audible joint squeaking


Explanation

Ceramic-on-ceramic bearings have extremely low volumetric wear rates and virtually eliminate the risk of polyethylene-induced osteolysis. However, they carry a unique risk of audible "squeaking" during movement and potential catastrophic component fracture.

Question 3895

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 75-year-old active, community-ambulating woman sustains a displaced intracapsular femoral neck fracture. Compared to internal fixation, treating this patient with a total hip arthroplasty (THA) provides which of the following distinct advantages?

. Lower risk of postoperative hip dislocation
. Decreased surgical time and initial blood loss
. Significantly lower rate of revision surgery
. Lower immediate risk of periprosthetic joint infection
. Faster immediate union of the proximal femur

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Significantly lower rate of revision surgery


Explanation

In elderly, active patients with displaced femoral neck fractures, THA is associated with improved functional outcomes and significantly lower rates of revision surgery compared to internal fixation. This advantage is balanced against higher initial surgical risks and a greater chance of dislocation.

Question 3896

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 50-year-old patient presents with groin pain 12 years after a primary total hip arthroplasty. A radiograph is provided.

Assuming eccentric wear of a standard polyethylene liner and extensive radiolucent lines around the components without signs of infection, what is the fundamental biologic mechanism causing the bone loss?

. Type IV delayed hypersensitivity reaction
. Macrophage phagocytosis of particulate debris
. Direct bacterial degradation of bone matrix
. Stress shielding from a proximally coated stem
. Galvanic corrosion at the head-neck junction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Macrophage phagocytosis of particulate debris


Explanation

Polyethylene wear debris is generated mechanically and subsequently phagocytosed by macrophages. This triggers an inflammatory cascade involving TNF-alpha, IL-1, and IL-6, which stimulates osteoclastogenesis and results in aseptic periprosthetic osteolysis.

Question 3897

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 60-year-old man presents with a painful total hip arthroplasty 6 years after index surgery. He has a metal-on-polyethylene bearing with a 36-mm titanium head on a cobalt-chrome stem. Aspiration is negative for infection, but serum cobalt levels are markedly elevated. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Polyethylene-induced osteolysis
. Mechanically assisted crevice corrosion (Trunnionosis)
. Low-grade periprosthetic joint infection
. Aseptic loosening of the femoral stem
. Metallosis secondary to edge loading

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Mechanically assisted crevice corrosion (Trunnionosis)


Explanation

Trunnionosis involves mechanically assisted crevice corrosion at the modular head-neck (trunnion) junction. It can present with elevated serum cobalt (often out of proportion to chromium) and adverse local tissue reactions, even in standard metal-on-polyethylene bearings.

Question 3898

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A 65-year-old woman presents with persistent lateral hip pain and a severe Trendelenburg gait 1 year after a THA via a lateral (Hardinge) approach. MRI demonstrates a chronic, full-thickness, completely retracted tear of the gluteus medius and minimus with severe fatty infiltration. What is the most appropriate surgical management?

. Primary end-to-end tendon repair with non-absorbable sutures
. Iliotibial band windowing and localized bursectomy
. Gluteus maximus muscle flap transfer
. Observation and aggressive physical therapy
. Revision of the femoral component to a high-offset stem

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Gluteus maximus muscle flap transfer


Explanation

For chronic, fully retracted, and irreparable abductor mechanism tears following THA, primary repair is usually destined to fail due to muscle degeneration. A gluteus maximus muscle flap transfer is the procedure of choice to restore abductor function and stabilize the pelvis.

Question 3899

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Despite advancements in implant design, what remains the most common complication and cause for late revision surgery following anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty (aTSA)?

. Polyethylene glenoid wear and aseptic loosening
. Subscapularis tendon failure
. Deep periprosthetic joint infection
. Aseptic loosening of the humeral stem
. Coracoid impingement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Polyethylene glenoid wear and aseptic loosening


Explanation

Aseptic loosening of the polyethylene glenoid component is the most common reason for late revision in aTSA. The eccentric loading of the component, known as the "rocking horse" phenomenon, significantly contributes to this failure mechanism.

Question 3900

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 68-year-old woman sustains a displaced proximal humerus fracture. According to Hertel's criteria for ischemia, which of the following radiographic findings is the strongest predictor of subsequent avascular necrosis of the humeral head?

. Metaphyseal head extension (calcar length) less than 8 mm
. Angulation of the surgical neck > 45 degrees
. Greater tuberosity superior displacement > 1 cm
. Intact medial periosteal hinge
. Comminution of the lateral cortex

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Metaphyseal head extension (calcar length) less than 8 mm


Explanation

Hertel established that a short metaphyseal head extension (calcar length < 8 mm) and a disrupted medial hinge are excellent predictors of humeral head ischemia. These findings correlate strongly with subsequent avascular necrosis.