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Question 3861

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 70-year-old male who underwent a total hip arthroplasty 15 years ago presents with progressive leg shortening. Radiographs demonstrate eccentric, superior placement of the femoral head within the acetabular cup and extensive endosteal scalloping with osteolysis in Gruen zones 1 and 7. The stem remains firmly fixed. What is the fundamental cellular mechanism driving this osteolysis?
. Delayed type IV hypersensitivity reaction to constituent metal ions
. Endotoxin-mediated macrophage activation secondary to subclinical biofilm infection
. Macrophage phagocytosis of particulate debris leading to release of TNF-ฮฑ and IL-1
. Stress shielding of the proximal femur due to a stiff diaphyseal-engaging implant
. Galvanic corrosion between differing metals at the modular head-neck taper

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Macrophage phagocytosis of particulate debris leading to release of TNF-ฮฑ and IL-1


Explanation

The clinical scenario and radiologic findings (eccentric head placement indicative of liner wear, combined with periprosthetic osteolysis) are classic for particle disease due to polyethylene wear. Small wear particles (<1 micron) are phagocytosed by macrophages. Unable to digest the particles, the activated macrophages release osteolytic cytokines, including TNF-ฮฑ, IL-1, IL-6, and PGE2. This cascade ultimately increases RANKL expression, which stimulates osteoclast differentiation and activity, resulting in focal bone resorption (osteolysis).

Question 3862

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A 68-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with an anterior dislocation of her primary total hip arthroplasty (THA). The index procedure was performed 6 weeks ago via a standard posterior approach. Which of the following component malpositions is most likely responsible for this specific direction of dislocation?

. Cup retroversion and stem retroversion
. Excessive cup anteversion and excessive stem anteversion
. Excessive cup abduction and stem retroversion
. Insufficient femoral offset and isolated cup retroversion
. Decreased femoral neck-shaft angle and excessive cup retroversion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Excessive cup anteversion and excessive stem anteversion


Explanation

Anterior dislocation of a THA is most commonly associated with excessive combined anteversion of the acetabular and femoral components. In this scenario, excessive anteversion leads to posterior impingement of the femoral neck against the posterior acetabular rim during extension and external rotation. This impingement levers the femoral head out of the acetabulum anteriorly. Conversely, retroversion of the components typically leads to anterior impingement and posterior dislocation.

Question 3863

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 72-year-old man presents with severe pain in his right total hip arthroplasty 3 years postoperatively. Radiographs show stable components with no osteolysis. Aspiration of the hip yields synovial fluid with a WBC count of 4,800 cells/ยตL and 88% polymorphonuclear neutrophils (PMNs). Alpha-defensin testing is positive. Serum CRP is 35 mg/L and ESR is 55 mm/hr. Assuming adequate bone stock and soft tissue coverage, what is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Single-stage revision arthroplasty with antibiotic-loaded bone cement
. Two-stage revision arthroplasty
. Debridement, antibiotics, and implant retention (DAIR) with polyethylene liner exchange
. Suppressive oral antibiotic therapy for 6 months followed by re-aspiration
. Resection arthroplasty (Girdlestone procedure) without reimplantation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Two-stage revision arthroplasty


Explanation

The patient meets the criteria for a chronic periprosthetic joint infection (PJI) based on the elevated synovial WBC, PMN percentage, positive alpha-defensin, and elevated inflammatory markers occurring years after the index surgery. For chronic PJI, the mature biofilm prevents successful eradication with simple debridement. The gold standard treatment in North America remains a two-stage revision arthroplasty. DAIR is contraindicated in chronic PJI and is reserved for acute postoperative infections (typically < 4 weeks) or acute hematogenous infections with a short duration of symptoms.

Question 3864

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)



A 72-year-old female presents with severe thigh pain after a ground-level fall. Radiographs demonstrate a periprosthetic fracture around a loose femoral stem, but with adequate surrounding bone stock. According to the Vancouver classification, what is the most appropriate surgical management?

. Open reduction and internal fixation with cables alone
. Revision total hip arthroplasty with a fully porous-coated long stem
. Impaction bone grafting with retention of the current stem
. Revision with a proximal femoral replacement
. Cortical strut allograft fixation only

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Revision total hip arthroplasty with a fully porous-coated long stem


Explanation

This is a Vancouver B2 periprosthetic fracture, characterized by a loose stem but adequate bone stock. The standard of care is revision to a longer, diaphyseal-fitting stem that bypasses the fracture by at least two cortical diameters.

Question 3865

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 55-year-old female with a metal-on-metal total hip arthroplasty presents with chronic groin pain and a palpable mass. MRI reveals a solid and cystic pseudotumor. If a tissue sample is taken, which histopathological finding is most characteristic of an Adverse Local Tissue Reaction (ALTR/ALVAL) in this setting?

. Abundant neutrophils with intracellular bacteria
. Diffuse perivascular infiltrates of T and B lymphocytes
. Birefringent rhomboid crystals with negative elongation
. Extensive polyethylene wear debris within macrophages
. Sheets of eosinophils and mast cells

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Diffuse perivascular infiltrates of T and B lymphocytes


Explanation

Adverse Local Tissue Reaction (ALTR), or Aseptic Lymphocytic Vasculitis-Associated Lesions (ALVAL), is a delayed-type hypersensitivity response to metal ions. Histologically, it is characterized by a diffuse, perivascular infiltrate of lymphocytes.

Question 3866

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A patient with a metal-on-polyethylene total hip arthroplasty presents with new-onset groin pain. Serological testing demonstrates significantly elevated serum cobalt levels, while chromium levels remain normal. What is the most likely source of the metal wear?

. Acetabular cup loosening and micromotion
. Bearing surface abrasive wear
. Mechanically assisted crevice corrosion at the head-neck junction
. Stem-cement interface debonding
. Third-body wear from retained bone cement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Mechanically assisted crevice corrosion at the head-neck junction


Explanation

Trunnionosis, or mechanically assisted crevice corrosion, occurs at the modular head-neck taper junction. Unlike metal-on-metal bearing wear, which typically elevates both cobalt and chromium, trunnion corrosion classically presents with disproportionately high serum cobalt levels relative to chromium.

Question 3867

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

In patients who have undergone ceramic-on-ceramic total hip arthroplasty, post-operative 'squeaking' is a known complication. Which biomechanical factor is most strongly associated with the development of this phenomenon?

. Use of a femoral head larger than 36 mm
. Acetabular component retroversion leading to edge loading
. Excessive femoral offset
. Impingement of the iliopsoas tendon on the anterior cup rim
. Subclinical periprosthetic joint infection

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Acetabular component retroversion leading to edge loading


Explanation

Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic bearings is highly correlated with edge loading and microseparation. This is most often caused by component malposition, particularly acetabular component retroversion or excessive inclination.

Question 3868

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 72-year-old man presents with chronic right hip pain 3 years after a primary total hip arthroplasty. Laboratory tests show an ESR of 45 mm/hr and a CRP of 18 mg/L. Hip aspiration yields synovial fluid with a WBC count of 3,500 cells/uL and 75% PMNs. Which of the following tests is the most accurate synovial biomarker to confirm a periprosthetic joint infection in this scenario?

. Synovial fluid leukocyte esterase
. Synovial fluid alpha-defensin
. Serum D-dimer
. Serum procalcitonin
. Synovial fluid IL-6

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Synovial fluid alpha-defensin


Explanation

Alpha-defensin is a highly sensitive and specific synovial fluid biomarker for diagnosing periprosthetic joint infection (PJI). It is recognized as a major supporting criterion in modern PJI diagnostic algorithms.

Question 3869

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A 64-year-old man presents with progressive groin pain and swelling 6 years after a metal-on-polyethylene total hip arthroplasty utilizing a large-diameter cobalt-chromium femoral head on a titanium stem. Serum cobalt levels are markedly elevated (15 ppb) while chromium levels are normal (1.5 ppb). What is the most likely source of the elevated metal ions?

. Articular bearing wear
. Acetabular shell fretting
. Mechanically assisted crevice corrosion at the head-neck junction
. Third-body wear from retained cement
. Impingement of the femoral neck on the acetabular rim

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Mechanically assisted crevice corrosion at the head-neck junction


Explanation

Markedly elevated cobalt levels with normal or mildly elevated chromium levels in the setting of a metal-on-polyethylene THA suggests mechanically assisted crevice corrosion (trunnionosis). This occurs at the modular head-neck taper junction.

Question 3870

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A 55-year-old man reports a new-onset squeaking noise originating from his hip when walking, 4 years after undergoing a primary total hip arthroplasty. Radiographs show a well-fixed uncemented titanium stem and acetabular shell with a ceramic-on-ceramic bearing. Which of the following factors is most strongly associated with the development of squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic THA?

. High body mass index
. Femoral stem retroversion
. Acetabular component malposition
. Short femoral neck length
. Use of a 28-mm femoral head

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Acetabular component malposition


Explanation

Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic THA is most strongly associated with acetabular cup malposition, particularly excessive inclination and retroversion. This malposition leads to edge loading, loss of fluid film lubrication, and stripe wear.

Question 3871

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 68-year-old woman presents with persistent lateral hip pain and a positive Trendelenburg sign 1 year after a total hip arthroplasty via a direct lateral approach. An MRI with metal artifact reduction sequence (MARS) demonstrates a full-thickness tear of the gluteus medius tendon with 4 cm of retraction and severe fatty atrophy (Goutallier stage 4). What is the most appropriate surgical management?

. Endoscopic primary tendon repair
. Open primary tendon repair with suture anchors
. Gluteus maximus muscle transfer
. Achilles tendon allograft reconstruction
. Constrained acetabular liner placement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Gluteus maximus muscle transfer


Explanation

In the setting of a massive, retracted abductor tear with severe fatty atrophy, primary repair is biomechanically likely to fail. A muscle transfer (such as a gluteus maximus or vastus lateralis flap) or an allograft reconstruction is indicated for functional restoration.

Question 3872

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 45-year-old patient underwent a total hip arthroplasty with a ceramic-on-ceramic bearing. Two years postoperatively, they complain of a high-pitched squeaking sound during movement but report no pain. What is the most likely biomechanical cause of this phenomenon?

. Trunnionosis at the head-neck junction
. Stripe wear from edge loading
. Metallosis from an unstable titanium shell
. Psoas impingement on the anterior cup rim
. Subclinical periprosthetic joint infection

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Stripe wear from edge loading


Explanation

Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic THA is highly associated with edge loading, which leads to stripe wear and the loss of fluid-film lubrication. In the absence of pain, it rarely indicates impending catastrophic failure.

Question 3873

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 68-year-old male presents with a painful THA 3 years postoperatively. Synovial fluid aspiration reveals a WBC count of 3,500 cells/uL with 75% PMNs. Which of the following synovial fluid biomarkers is considered the most specific for confirming a periprosthetic joint infection?

. C-reactive protein (CRP)
. Leukocyte esterase
. Alpha-defensin
. Interleukin-6 (IL-6)
. Synovial lactate

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Alpha-defensin


Explanation

Alpha-defensin is an antimicrobial peptide released by neutrophils in response to pathogens. It is a highly sensitive and specific biomarker for diagnosing periprosthetic joint infection (PJI).

Question 3874

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

When placing acetabular screws during a total hip arthroplasty, the "safe zone" is located in the posterior-superior quadrant of the acetabulum. What critical neurovascular structure is at highest risk if a screw significantly overpenetrates the anterior-superior quadrant?

. External iliac artery
. Obturator nerve
. Sciatic nerve
. Superior gluteal nerve
. Internal pudendal artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. External iliac artery


Explanation

The anterior-superior quadrant of the acetabulum overlies the external iliac artery and vein. Screw placement in this region risks catastrophic vascular injury.

Question 3875

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 35-year-old patient on chronic systemic corticosteroids for lupus presents with new-onset hip pain. MRI shows a double-line sign on T2-weighted images. Radiographs show a 2 mm subchondral crescent sign, but the femoral head remains spherical. What is the most appropriate joint-preserving surgical intervention?
. Total hip arthroplasty
. Core decompression alone
. Core decompression with non-vascularized bone grafting
. Free vascularized fibular grafting
. Varus proximal femoral osteotomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Free vascularized fibular grafting


Explanation

In early post-collapse avascular necrosis (Ficat stage III with a crescent sign but preserved sphericity) in young patients, free vascularized fibular grafting provides both structural support and angiogenesis, delaying the need for THA.

Question 3876

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

Postoperatively, a THA patient complains that their operative leg feels "too long." Radiographs confirm the vertical distance from the teardrop to the lesser trochanter is equal bilaterally, but the horizontal distance is increased by 15 mm on the operative side. What is the most likely clinical consequence?

. Increased risk of anterior dislocation
. Increased joint reaction forces across the bearing
. Decreased abductor lever arm
. Trochanteric bursitis
. Impingement of the greater trochanter on the ilium

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Trochanteric bursitis


Explanation

The radiograph describes an increase in femoral offset without a vertical leg length discrepancy. Over-offsetting increases tension on the abductor mechanism and iliotibial band, highly predisposing the patient to trochanteric bursitis.

Question 3877

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A 60-year-old female presents with persistent lateral hip pain and a positive Trendelenburg sign 6 months after a posterior approach THA. MRI demonstrates a complete avulsion of the conjoined tendon of the abductors. Where does the primary insertion of the gluteus medius strictly lie?

. Anterior facet of the greater trochanter
. Lateral and superoposterior facets of the greater trochanter
. Intertrochanteric crest
. Lesser trochanter
. Linea aspera

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral and superoposterior facets of the greater trochanter


Explanation

The gluteus medius primarily inserts onto the lateral and superoposterior facets of the greater trochanter. The gluteus minimus inserts more anteriorly onto the anterior facet.

Question 3878

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Highly cross-linked polyethylene (HXLPE) is the modern standard bearing surface in THA. What specific step in its manufacturing process is critical for eliminating free radicals to prevent late oxidative degradation?

. Gamma irradiation in a vacuum
. Remelting or annealing
. Addition of barium sulfate
. Cold drawing under high pressure
. Ethylene oxide sterilization

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Remelting or annealing


Explanation

Gamma irradiation induces cross-linking but leaves residual free radicals. Remelting (heating above the melting point) or annealing (heating below the melting point) quenches these free radicals, preventing long-term oxidative degradation.

Question 3879

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A patient with a metal-on-polyethylene THA presents with a painful, swollen hip 5 years postoperatively. Inflammatory markers are normal, and aspiration yields dark, sterile fluid. MRI reveals a large pseudotumor. What is the most likely source of this adverse local tissue reaction (ALTR)?

. Edge loading of the highly cross-linked polyethylene
. Fretting and galvanic corrosion at the modular head-neck junction
. Dissociation of the acetabular locking mechanism
. Type IV hypersensitivity to polymethylmethacrylate cement
. Mechanical impingement of the iliopsoas tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Fretting and galvanic corrosion at the modular head-neck junction


Explanation

Mechanically assisted crevice corrosion (trunnionosis) at the modular head-neck junction can release significant metal ions in non-metal-on-metal THA. This triggers an adverse local tissue reaction (ALTR) and pseudotumor formation.

Question 3880

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 65-year-old undergoes THA. How does increasing femoral offset affect hip biomechanics?

. Decreases abductor muscle tension
. Increases joint reaction force
. Increases the abductor moment arm
. Shifts the center of rotation medially
. Decreases the risk of polyethylene wear by reducing stability

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increases the abductor moment arm


Explanation

Increasing femoral offset increases the abductor moment arm. This subsequently reduces the force required by the abductors and decreases the overall joint reaction force, improving hip stability.