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Question 2821

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A 45-year-old active man presents with a high-pitched squeaking noise from his hip 3 years after a cementless primary THA with a ceramic-on-ceramic bearing. The noise occurs primarily during deep flexion activities. Which of the following component positional factors most strongly correlates with this phenomenon?

. Acetabular component retroversion
. Acetabular component anteversion greater than 20 degrees
. Femoral stem varus positioning
. Edge loading from excessive cup inclination
. Impingement of the greater trochanter on the ilium

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Edge loading from excessive cup inclination


Explanation

Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic THA is heavily associated with edge loading, which disrupts the normal fluid lubrication film between the bearings. This microseparation and edge loading typically results from acetabular cup malposition, particularly excessive inclination or version.

Question 2822

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 72-year-old man presents with a painful TKA 4 years postoperatively. Both ESR and CRP are elevated. Joint aspiration yields synovial fluid with a WBC count of 4,500 cells/uL and 85% neutrophils. Which additional synovial fluid test has the highest specificity for confirming a periprosthetic joint infection?

. Interleukin-6 levels
. Leukocyte esterase colorimetric strip
. Alpha-defensin assay
. Gram stain
. Glucosamine concentration

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Alpha-defensin assay


Explanation

Alpha-defensin is an antimicrobial peptide released by activated neutrophils in response to pathogens. It has demonstrated extremely high sensitivity and specificity for diagnosing periprosthetic joint infection, outperforming traditional inflammatory markers.

Question 2823

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

An 82-year-old woman with a history of recurrent posterior dislocations following a primary THA presents for revision. She has severe neuromuscular weakness and poor compliance with hip precautions. Her abductor mechanism is deficient but structurally intact. What is the most appropriate acetabular reconstruction option to minimize future dislocation risk?

. Standard hemispherical cup with a 10-degree elevated rim liner
. Constrained acetabular liner
. Dual-mobility articulation
. Bipolar hemiarthroplasty conversion
. Resection arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Dual-mobility articulation


Explanation

Dual-mobility articulations increase the effective head size and jump distance, significantly reducing dislocation rates in high-risk patients. They are preferred over constrained liners when the abductor mechanism is at least partially functioning due to lower rates of mechanical failure and aseptic loosening.

Question 2824

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 68-year-old man presents 1 year after a posterior-stabilized TKA complaining of a painful catch and audible "pop" in his knee when extending from a flexed position. The examination is otherwise normal, and radiographs are unremarkable. What is the most likely etiology of his symptoms?

. Patellar maltracking due to internal rotation of the tibial component
. A fibrous nodule at the superior pole of the patella engaging the intercondylar box
. Avascular necrosis of the remaining native patella
. Aseptic loosening of the femoral component
. Third-body wear from retained cement debris

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A fibrous nodule at the superior pole of the patella engaging the intercondylar box


Explanation

Patellar clunk syndrome occurs primarily in posterior-stabilized TKAs when a fibrous nodule forms at the superior pole of the patella and catches in the femoral intercondylar box during extension. Treatment typically involves arthroscopic or open excision of the fibrous nodule.

Question 2825

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 55-year-old woman is being evaluated for a medial unicompartmental knee arthroplasty (UKA). According to classical and modern guidelines, which of the following preoperative findings is an absolute contraindication for this procedure?

. Patient age less than 60 years
. Body mass index of 32 kg/m2
. Fixed flexion contracture of 10 degrees
. Previous medial meniscectomy
. Inflammatory arthropathy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Inflammatory arthropathy


Explanation

Inflammatory arthritis (e.g., rheumatoid arthritis) is considered an absolute contraindication for UKA due to the pan-articular nature of the disease. Age, moderate obesity, and minor fixed flexion contractures (< 15 degrees) are no longer considered absolute contraindications in modern practice.

Question 2826

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

In total hip arthroplasty, the use of highly cross-linked polyethylene (HXLPE) has significantly reduced wear rates compared to conventional polyethylene. Which of the following manufacturing processes specifically decreases the fatigue strength and fracture toughness of HXLPE?

. Electron beam irradiation
. Gamma irradiation in an inert vacuum
. Remelting above the melting point after irradiation
. Annealing below the melting point
. Vitamin E (alpha-tocopherol) infusion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Remelting above the melting point after irradiation


Explanation

Remelting HXLPE after irradiation eliminates free radicals to prevent oxidation but decreases the material's crystallinity. This reduction in crystallinity subsequently lowers the mechanical fatigue strength and fracture toughness of the polyethylene.

Question 2827

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 58-year-old woman complains of persistent groin pain 6 years after receiving a metal-on-metal total hip arthroplasty. Aspiration of the hip yields sterile, blood-tinged fluid. MRI demonstrates a large, solid and cystic periarticular mass. Histologic examination of the periarticular tissue would most likely demonstrate which of the following?

. Diffuse polymorphonuclear infiltrate with intracellular bacteria
. Birefringent rhomboid crystals under polarized light
. Extensive macrophage infiltration with identifiable polyethylene wear debris
. Perivascular lymphocytic infiltrate and areas of extensive tissue necrosis
. Multinucleated giant cells engorged with titanium particles

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Perivascular lymphocytic infiltrate and areas of extensive tissue necrosis


Explanation

Adverse local tissue reactions (ALVAL) associated with metal-on-metal implants are characterized by a delayed type IV hypersensitivity response. Histology typically shows characteristic perivascular lymphocytic infiltration, tissue necrosis, and the formation of pseudotumors.

Question 2828

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

During a primary TKA in a patient with a varus deformity, the surgeon assesses the gaps using spacer blocks after making the initial bone cuts. The knee is tight medially in both extension and flexion. What is the most appropriate initial soft tissue release to balance the knee?

. Popliteus tendon
. Iliotibial band
. Deep medial collateral ligament
. Posterior cruciate ligament
. Lateral collateral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Deep medial collateral ligament


Explanation

When a varus knee is tight medially in both flexion and extension, it indicates a symmetric medial tightness. Release of the deep medial collateral ligament (MCL) off the proximal medial tibia is the most appropriate initial step to balance the gaps.

Question 2829

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

An 81-year-old man falls and sustains a periprosthetic femur fracture around his cemented THA.

Radiographs reveal a fracture occurring around a loose femoral stem, but with adequate surrounding proximal bone stock. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

. Open reduction and internal fixation with a laterally applied locking plate
. Revision to a longer fully porous-coated or fluted tapered stem
. Revision to a proximal femoral replacement (tumor prosthesis)
. Nonoperative management with protected weight-bearing and a spica cast
. Application of cortical strut allografts with cerclage cables alone

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Revision to a longer fully porous-coated or fluted tapered stem


Explanation

A fracture around a loose femoral stem with adequate remaining bone stock is classified as a Vancouver type B2 periprosthetic fracture. The standard of care is revision of the loose component to a long-stem prosthesis that bypasses the fracture by at least two cortical diameters.

Question 2830

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

A 66-year-old man undergoes explantation of an infected TKA and placement of an articulating antibiotic-loaded cement spacer. Six weeks later, his wound is well-healed, and serum ESR and CRP have normalized. Before proceeding with the second-stage reimplantation, what is the most appropriate next step to confirm eradication of the infection?

. Technetium-99m bone scan
. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the knee
. Synovial fluid aspiration for cell count and culture
. Immediate reimplantation without further diagnostic testing
. Intraoperative frozen section revealing less than 5 PMNs per high-power field

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Synovial fluid aspiration for cell count and culture


Explanation

Prior to a second-stage reimplantation, evaluating the joint for residual infection is critical, even with normalized serum inflammatory markers. Joint aspiration for synovial fluid cell count, culture, and potentially biomarkers is recommended to ensure the infection is eradicated before placing new implants.

Question 2831

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

During trialing in a primary THA via a posterior approach, the surgeon notes the leg lengths are perfectly equal to the contralateral side, but the hip easily dislocates in adduction and internal rotation. To increase stability via soft tissue tensioning without altering the leg length, which of the following component changes should be made?

. Use a femoral head with a longer neck length (+4 to +8 mm)
. Use a high-offset femoral stem option
. Increase the neck-shaft angle of the femoral stem (valgus stem)
. Advance the femoral stem deeper into the medullary canal
. Decrease the anteversion of the acetabular component

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Use a high-offset femoral stem option


Explanation

A high-offset femoral stem increases the horizontal distance from the center of rotation to the femoral shaft, tightening the abductors and improving stability. It accomplishes this strictly on the horizontal axis without increasing vertical leg length, unlike substituting a longer femoral head.

Question 2832

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 70-year-old woman presents with progressive knee pain 12 years after a primary TKA.

Radiographs demonstrate extensive osteolysis behind the tibial tray. Which of the following factors is most strongly associated with accelerated polyethylene wear and subsequent osteolysis in TKA?

. Use of a highly cross-linked polyethylene insert
. Polyethylene insert thickness greater than 10 mm
. High conformity in the coronal plane
. Malalignment of the limb in the coronal plane
. Use of an all-polyethylene cemented tibial component

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Malalignment of the limb in the coronal plane


Explanation

Coronal plane malalignment in TKA leads to eccentric loading and increased focal contact stresses on the polyethylene insert. This significantly accelerates polyethylene wear, generating particulate debris that initiates the macrophage-mediated biological cascade resulting in osteolysis.

Question 2833

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During a primary total knee arthroplasty (TKA), the surgeon decides to use a posterior-stabilized (PS) implant. Which of the following best describes the primary mechanical function of the cam-and-post mechanism in this design?

. Substitutes for the anterior cruciate ligament to prevent hyperextension
. Prevents anterior translation of the femur on the tibia in deep flexion
. Forces femoral rollback during knee flexion
. Prevents posterior translation of the femur on the tibia in extension
. Maintains coronal plane stability by acting as a collateral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Forces femoral rollback during knee flexion


Explanation

In a PS TKA, the tibial post engages the femoral cam during knee flexion, driving the femur posteriorly. This forced femoral rollback substitutes for the resected posterior cruciate ligament, improving maximum flexion and preventing anterior femoral subluxation.

Question 2834

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 65-year-old man presents with an audible and palpable squeaking sound from his right hip 2 years after a primary total hip arthroplasty (THA). Radiographs show well-fixed components. What is the most likely bearing surface combination he received?

. Metal-on-highly cross-linked polyethylene
. Ceramic-on-polyethylene
. Ceramic-on-ceramic
. Metal-on-metal
. Polyethylene-on-polyethylene

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ceramic-on-ceramic


Explanation

Squeaking is a specific, well-documented complication associated with ceramic-on-ceramic bearing surfaces in THA. It is often linked to component malpositioning, edge loading, and stripe wear.

Question 2835

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 68-year-old woman presents with a painful total knee arthroplasty 4 years post-surgery. Her serum ESR and CRP are elevated. Aspiration yields synovial fluid. According to the Musculoskeletal Infection Society (MSIS) criteria, what minimum synovial fluid white blood cell (WBC) count strongly indicates a chronic periprosthetic joint infection?

. 1,500 cells/uL
. 3,000 cells/uL
. 10,000 cells/uL
. 25,000 cells/uL
. 50,000 cells/uL

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 3,000 cells/uL


Explanation

For a chronic periprosthetic joint infection (PJI), a synovial fluid WBC count of >3,000 cells/uL (with >80% PMNs) is a major diagnostic criterion. In the acute postoperative period (<6 weeks), a higher threshold of >10,000 cells/uL is used.

Question 2836

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A 70-year-old man undergoes revision THA for recurrent posterior dislocations. During the procedure, the surgeon notes that the existing acetabular component is in neutral version. To minimize future posterior instability, the surgeon should reposition the cup to achieve which target orientation?

. 15 degrees of anteversion and 40 degrees of abduction
. 0 degrees of anteversion and 30 degrees of abduction
. 15 degrees of retroversion and 45 degrees of abduction
. 30 degrees of anteversion and 60 degrees of abduction
. 5 degrees of anteversion and 20 degrees of abduction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 15 degrees of anteversion and 40 degrees of abduction


Explanation

Lewinnek's 'safe zone' for acetabular cup placement to minimize the risk of dislocation is historically defined as 15 degrees (+/- 10 degrees) of anteversion and 40 degrees (+/- 10 degrees) of abduction. Retroversion or inadequate anteversion significantly increases the risk of posterior dislocation.

Question 2837

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

A 62-year-old woman complains of a painful catch and an audible pop when actively extending her knee from a flexed position, one year after a primary TKA.

What implant design or technical factor most increases the risk of this specific complication?

. Cruciate-retaining femoral design
. High (proximal) patellar component placement
. A shallow trochlear groove in the femoral component
. Posterior-stabilized design with a sharp anterior aspect of the intercondylar box
. Oversizing the tibial component

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior-stabilized design with a sharp anterior aspect of the intercondylar box


Explanation

This presentation is classic for patellar clunk syndrome, caused by a fibrotic nodule forming at the superior pole of the patella. It is most commonly associated with posterior-stabilized (PS) designs due to the nodule catching in the intercondylar box during extension.

Question 2838

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 55-year-old woman presents with persistent groin pain and a palpable mass 4 years after a metal-on-metal THA. Imaging reveals a solid and cystic mass adjacent to the joint. Which histological finding is most characteristic of this condition?

. Abundant neutrophil infiltration with acute fibrinopurulent exudate
. Perivascular lymphocytic infiltrate and extensive tissue necrosis
. Massive polyethylene wear debris with foreign body giant cells
. Sheets of malignant spindle cells with high mitotic figures
. Monosodium urate crystals surrounded by macrophages

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Perivascular lymphocytic infiltrate and extensive tissue necrosis


Explanation

The patient has a pseudotumor due to an adverse local tissue reaction (ALTR/ALVAL) from metal wear debris. Histology characteristically shows an aseptic lymphocytic vasculitis-associated lesion (ALVAL) with extensive necrosis and perivascular lymphocytic cuffing.

Question 2839

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

During a primary TKA using a measured resection technique, the extension gap is symmetric and perfectly balanced, but the flexion gap is unacceptably tight. What is the most appropriate surgical step to correct this mismatch?

. Resect more distal femur
. Release the posterior capsule
. Downsize the femoral component and augment the posterior condyles
. Downsize the femoral component to resect more posterior femoral condyle
. Use a thinner polyethylene insert

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Downsize the femoral component to resect more posterior femoral condyle


Explanation

A tight flexion gap with a balanced extension gap implies the anteroposterior dimension of the femoral component is too large. Downsizing the femoral component removes more posterior bone, which opens the flexion gap without altering the extension gap.

Question 2840

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

An 82-year-old woman falls and sustains a periprosthetic femur fracture around her cementless THA stem.

Radiographs demonstrate a fracture at the tip of the stem. The stem is loose, but there is adequate proximal bone stock. According to the Vancouver classification, what is the standard treatment?

. Open reduction internal fixation with a lateral locking plate and cables
. Revision to a standard length cemented stem
. Revision to a long diaphyseal-engaging fully porous-coated or fluted tapered stem
. Revision to a proximal femoral replacement (megaprosthesis)
. Nonoperative management with a hinged brace

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Revision to a long diaphyseal-engaging fully porous-coated or fluted tapered stem


Explanation

This is a Vancouver B2 fracture (fracture around the stem, loose stem, adequate bone stock). The standard of care is revision arthroplasty using a long stem that bypasses the fracture by at least two cortical diameters, typically utilizing a diaphyseal engaging design.