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Question 2801

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 65-year-old man undergoes a posterior-stabilized total knee arthroplasty. Intraoperative trialing reveals the knee is perfectly balanced in full extension but is overly tight in 90 degrees of flexion. What is the most appropriate surgical step to balance the knee?

. Downsize the femoral component
. Resect more distal femur
. Downsize the tibial polyethylene
. Release the posterior cruciate ligament
. Release the posterior capsule

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Downsize the femoral component


Explanation

Tightness isolated to flexion is managed by decreasing the anteroposterior diameter of the femoral component. This effectively increases the flexion gap without altering the extension gap.

Question 2802

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 52-year-old man reports an audible squeaking noise from his right hip 3 years after a ceramic-on-ceramic total hip arthroplasty. He denies any pain or instability. What is the most common cause of this phenomenon?

. Acetabular component malposition
. Femoral stem subsidence
. Periprosthetic joint infection
. Polyethylene liner dissociation
. Trunnionosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Acetabular component malposition


Explanation

Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic THA is strongly associated with component malposition, specifically extreme anteversion or retroversion, which leads to edge loading and stripe wear.

Question 2803

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During a total knee arthroplasty, the femoral component is inadvertently placed in 5 degrees of internal rotation relative to the surgical transepicondylar axis. This error is most likely to result in which of the following complications?

. Patellar lateral subluxation
. Medial collateral ligament tightness in extension
. Posterior cruciate ligament rupture
. Medial compartment early wear
. Patellar medial subluxation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Patellar lateral subluxation


Explanation

Internal rotation of the femoral component medializes the distal condyles and lateralizes the trochlear groove relative to the extensor mechanism. This significantly increases the Q-angle and the risk of lateral patellar maltracking.

Question 2804

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

When performing a primary total hip arthroplasty via the direct anterior (Smith-Petersen) approach, the deep surgical interval is developed between which two muscles?

. Tensor fasciae latae and sartorius
. Rectus femoris and tensor fasciae latae
. Gluteus medius and piriformis
. Gluteus medius and tensor fasciae latae
. Pectineus and iliopsoas

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Rectus femoris and tensor fasciae latae


Explanation

The superficial interval of the direct anterior approach is between the sartorius (femoral nerve) and TFL (superior gluteal nerve). The deep interval is between the rectus femoris and the TFL.

Question 2805

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

An 82-year-old woman sustains a fall 10 years after a primary total hip arthroplasty. Radiographs reveal a periprosthetic femur fracture extending around the tip of the stem. The stem is frankly loose, but there is excellent surrounding diaphyseal bone stock. According to the Vancouver classification, what is the best treatment?

. Open reduction and internal fixation with a lateral plate
. Revision to a standard length uncemented stem
. Revision to a long fully porous-coated or fluted tapered stem
. Cerclage wiring alone
. Impaction bone grafting with a cemented stem

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Revision to a long fully porous-coated or fluted tapered stem


Explanation

A fracture around a loose stem with adequate bone stock is a Vancouver B2 fracture. The standard of care is revision to a longer stem, bypassing the fracture by at least two cortical diameters, to achieve diaphyseal fixation.

Question 2806

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 66-year-old man presents with a chronically painful TKA. Joint aspiration is performed to rule out periprosthetic joint infection (PJI). The synovial fluid alpha-defensin test returns positive. What is the primary function of alpha-defensin in this context?

. An acute phase reactant produced by the liver
. An antimicrobial peptide released by neutrophils
. A byproduct of bacterial biofilm degradation
. A cytokine responsible for osteoclast activation
. An antibody specifically targeting Staphylococcus aureus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. An antimicrobial peptide released by neutrophils


Explanation

Alpha-defensin is an antimicrobial peptide released by activated neutrophils in response to infection. It serves as a highly sensitive and specific biomarker for diagnosing periprosthetic joint infection.

Question 2807

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 45-year-old woman presents with persistent anterior groin pain 1 year after an uncemented total hip arthroplasty. The pain is exacerbated by active straight leg raising. A cross-table lateral radiograph shows the acetabular component overhangs the anterior bone edge by 6 mm. What is the most appropriate initial management?

. Revision of the acetabular component
. Corticosteroid injection into the hip joint
. Arthroscopic iliopsoas tenotomy
. Oral nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and physical therapy
. Revision of the femoral stem to increase offset

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Oral nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and physical therapy


Explanation

The patient's presentation is classic for iliopsoas impingement over a prominent anterior acetabular rim. Initial management should always be nonoperative, utilizing NSAIDs and physical therapy before considering surgical release or cup revision.

Question 2808

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 60-year-old woman complains of a painful 'catching' sensation at the anterior aspect of her knee when extending from a flexed position, 14 months after a posterior-stabilized total knee arthroplasty. What is the most likely etiology of this condition?

. A fibrotic nodule engaging the intercondylar notch
. Asymmetric polyethylene wear
. Loosening of the patellar component
. Undersized femoral component
. Retained posterior cruciate ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A fibrotic nodule engaging the intercondylar notch


Explanation

Patellar clunk syndrome occurs primarily in older posterior-stabilized TKA designs when a fibrotic nodule forms at the superior pole of the patella. This nodule catches within the femoral intercondylar box during extension.

Question 2809

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 72-year-old woman undergoes revision total knee arthroplasty. Intraoperatively, she is noted to have a deficient medial collateral ligament (MCL) but an intact patellar tendon and adequate bone stock. Which type of implant constraint is most appropriate?

. Cruciate-retaining
. Posterior-stabilized
. Constrained non-hinged (CCK)
. Rotating-hinge
. Fixed-hinge

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Constrained non-hinged (CCK)


Explanation

A constrained condylar knee (CCK) utilizes a tall, wide central post to substitute for a deficient collateral ligament (specifically the MCL or LCL) in the setting of balanced gaps and an intact extensor mechanism.

Question 2810

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A direct lateral (Hardinge) approach is used for a primary total hip arthroplasty. To minimize the risk of denervation to the anterior portion of the abductor musculature, proximal splitting of the gluteus medius should be limited to what distance superior to the tip of the greater trochanter?

. 1 cm
. 3 cm
. 5 cm
. 7 cm
. 9 cm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 3 cm


Explanation

The superior gluteal nerve runs approximately 3 to 5 cm proximal to the tip of the greater trochanter. Splitting the gluteus medius proximal to this safe zone risks nerve injury and subsequent abductor weakness (Trendelenburg gait).

Question 2811

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 60-year-old man presents with a painful, swollen hip 6 years after a metal-on-polyethylene total hip arthroplasty. Aspirate yields fluid with a high lymphocyte count, but cultures are negative. Serum cobalt levels are highly elevated, while chromium is normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Periprosthetic joint infection
. Polyethylene wear-induced osteolysis
. Trunnionosis (mechanically assisted crevice corrosion)
. Iliopsoas bursitis
. Subsidence of the femoral stem

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Trunnionosis (mechanically assisted crevice corrosion)


Explanation

Elevated serum cobalt levels with normal chromium, an ALVAL reaction, and a metal-on-polyethylene bearing point to mechanically assisted crevice corrosion at the modular head-neck junction (trunnionosis).

Question 2812

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During total knee arthroplasty, the surgeon evaluates the gaps with trial components. The knee is tight in full extension but perfectly balanced at 90 degrees of flexion. Which of the following is the most appropriate corrective action?

. Downsize the femoral component
. Increase the posterior slope of the tibial cut
. Resect more posterior femoral condyle
. Resect more distal femur
. Perform a vastus medialis release

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Resect more distal femur


Explanation

A tight extension gap with a balanced flexion gap is corrected by resecting more bone from the distal femur. This enlarges the extension space without affecting the flexion space.

Question 2813

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 55-year-old active male is undergoing total hip arthroplasty. He asks about bearing surface options. Which of the following bearing couples has the lowest volumetric wear rate while avoiding the risk of squeaking or stripe wear?

. Ceramic-on-ceramic
. Metal-on-metal
. Ceramic-on-highly cross-linked polyethylene
. Cobalt chrome-on-highly cross-linked polyethylene
. Cobalt chrome-on-conventional polyethylene

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ceramic-on-highly cross-linked polyethylene


Explanation

Ceramic-on-highly cross-linked polyethylene (HXLPE) offers excellent wear characteristics, significantly lower than CoCr-on-HXLPE. It avoids the unique risks of squeaking and catastrophic component fracture associated with ceramic-on-ceramic bearings.

Question 2814

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During a primary posterior-stabilized total knee arthroplasty, the knee is found to be well-balanced in extension but tight in flexion. Which of the following is the most appropriate adjustment to achieve a balanced gap?

. Increase the distal femoral resection
. Downsize the femoral component
. Upsize the femoral component
. Decrease the tibial posterior slope
. Release the posterior capsule

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Downsize the femoral component


Explanation

A tight flexion gap with a balanced extension gap can be addressed by downsizing the femoral component when using anterior referencing, which decreases the posterior condylar offset. Alternatively, increasing the posterior tibial slope can also increase the flexion gap.

Question 2815

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 72-year-old woman presents with thigh pain after a fall. A radiograph reveals a fracture around her cemented femoral stem.

The stem is visibly loose with subsidence, but the proximal femoral bone stock is adequate. According to the Vancouver classification, what is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

. ORIF with a lateral locking plate and cerclage wires
. Revision to a long uncemented diaphyseal-engaging stem
. Revision to a proximal femoral replacement (tumor prosthesis)
. Nonoperative management in a long leg cast
. Impaction bone grafting and recementing a standard stem

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Revision to a long uncemented diaphyseal-engaging stem


Explanation

This is a Vancouver B2 periprosthetic fracture (fracture around the stem, loose stem, adequate bone stock). The gold standard treatment is revision to a long uncemented, extensively porous-coated or fluted tapered stem to bypass the fracture.

Question 2816

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 68-year-old man presents with acute onset of knee pain, swelling, and fever 3 weeks following a primary total knee arthroplasty. Aspiration yields a synovial white blood cell count of 65,000 cells/µL with 95% neutrophils. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management?

. Intravenous antibiotics for 6 weeks followed by a single-stage revision
. Two-stage revision arthroplasty with an antibiotic spacer
. Debridement, antibiotics, and implant retention (DAIR) with modular polyethylene exchange
. Knee arthrodesis
. Suppressive oral antibiotics indefinitely

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Debridement, antibiotics, and implant retention (DAIR) with modular polyethylene exchange


Explanation

Debridement, antibiotics, and implant retention (DAIR) with exchange of modular components is the indicated treatment for acute postoperative periprosthetic joint infections, typically defined as occurring within 4 weeks of the index surgery.

Question 2817

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 54-year-old woman complains of groin pain 6 years after receiving a metal-on-metal total hip arthroplasty. Her radiograph shows a steep cup abduction angle. MRI demonstrates a large fluid collection around the joint.

Serum cobalt and chromium are significantly elevated. Which histological finding is most expected in the periprosthetic tissue?

. Sheets of neutrophils with intracellular bacteria
. Extensive polymethylmethacrylate debris with giant cells
. Aseptic lymphocyte-dominated vasculitis-associated lesion (ALVAL)
. Predominantly lipid-laden macrophages with cholesterol clefts
. Woven bone with marrow fibrosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Aseptic lymphocyte-dominated vasculitis-associated lesion (ALVAL)


Explanation

Adverse local tissue reactions (ALTR) associated with metal-on-metal implants typically show an aseptic lymphocyte-dominated vasculitis-associated lesion (ALVAL). This is secondary to a type IV delayed hypersensitivity reaction to metal wear debris.

Question 2818

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 65-year-old woman undergoes a posterior-stabilized total knee arthroplasty. Intraoperatively, with the trial components in place, the knee is stable in extension but exhibits significant laxity in flexion. Which of the following component changes is the most appropriate next step?

. Increase the thickness of the polyethylene insert
. Downsize the femoral component
. Increase the size of the femoral component
. Translate the femoral component anteriorly
. Recut the distal femur

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increase the size of the femoral component


Explanation

A loose flexion gap with a stable extension gap is managed by increasing the anteroposterior dimension of the femur. Downsizing the femur or using a thicker polyethylene would not isolate the flexion gap alone.

Question 2819

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A 48-year-old active man complains of a loud, high-pitched squeaking noise coming from his right hip, particularly when bending to tie his shoes. He underwent an uncomplicated ceramic-on-ceramic total hip arthroplasty 2 years ago. Radiographs demonstrate a well-fixed stem and a cup with 65 degrees of inclination. What is the most likely cause of this phenomenon?

. Third-body wear from retained cement
. Edge loading due to component malposition
. Trunnion corrosion
. Infection
. Impingement of the femoral neck on the acetabular rim

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Edge loading due to component malposition


Explanation

Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic THA is highly associated with edge loading, often due to a steeply inclined or excessively anteverted cup. This causes microseparation and abnormal wear patterns.

Question 2820

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 65-year-old woman undergoes a posterior-stabilized (PS) total knee arthroplasty. Postoperatively, she experiences a sense of instability when rising from a low chair. Evaluation reveals a cam-post dislocation. What is the primary mechanical feature that prevents this specific complication in a properly balanced PS TKA?

. Adequate jump distance
. Retention of the posterior cruciate ligament
. Increased posterior tibial slope
. Complete release of the superficial medial collateral ligament
. Decreased femoral component rollback

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Adequate jump distance


Explanation

In a posterior-stabilized TKA, the cam-post mechanism substitutes for the PCL. A sufficient 'jump distance'—the vertical height the femoral cam must translate to dislocate over the tibial post—prevents posterior dislocation of the tibia during deep flexion.