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Question 2741

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Figure 36 shows an AP radiograph of a 65-year-old man who reports activity-related groin pain. History reveals that he underwent total hip arthroplasty 12 years ago. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Orthopedic Surgery Board Review 2026 | High-Yield MCQs - Set 1 - Figure 47

. Chondrosarcoma
. Infection
. Wear-induced osteolysis
. Corrosive effect due to dissimilar metals
. Metastatic tumor

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Wear-induced osteolysis


Explanation

The AP radiograph demonstrates extensive periacetabular osteolysis. The central hole eliminator has dissociated from the shell and migrated into a lytic defect in the ischium. In a retrieval study, most periacetabular osteolytic lesions had a clear communication pathway with the joint space. Lesions with communication to the joint via several pathways or through a central dome hole (as in this patient) were larger and more likely to be associated with cortical erosion. Although periprosthetic tumors have been described, they are rare and particle-induced inflammation around a prosthesis does not seem to increase the risk for carcinogenesis. Visuri T, Pulkkinen P, Paavolainen P: Malignant tumors at the site of total hip prosthesis: Analytic review of 46 cases. J Arthroplasty 2006;21:311-323. Bezwada HP, Shah AR, Zambito K, et al: Distal femoral allograft reconstruction for massive osteolytic bone loss in revision total knee arthroplasty. J Arthroplasty 2006;21:242-248.

Question 2742

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Figures 14a and 14b show the plain radiographs of an 85-year-old woman who has had severe pain in the right knee for the past 4 months. Management should consist of

. a hinged knee brace.
. arthroscopic debridement.
. high tibial osteotomy.
. total knee arthroplasty.
. osteochondral grafts.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. total knee arthroplasty.


Explanation

The patient has osteonecrosis of the lateral femoral condyle with collapse of the articular surface. Because there is already collapse of the articular surface, a total knee arthroplasty is the treatment of choice. The results of total knee arthroplasty in these patients are usually excellent. However, knee replacement is only a resurfacing procedure, and some patients with global osteonecrosis of the distal femur may have residual pain after knee replacement. High tibial osteotomy may be indicated in younger patients who have a varus deformity and localized osteonecrosis. Arthroscopic surgery would provide minimal relief for this patient because there is already collapse of the articular surface. A hinged knee brace will not adequately unload the joint. An osteochondral allograft should be considered only for younger patients with localized osteonecrosis. Bergman NR, Rand JA: Total knee arthroplasty in osteonecrosis. Clin Orthop 1991;273:77-82.

Question 2743

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 70-year-old man has worn through his metal-backed patellar component and sustained damage to the femoral component. Following removal of the components and debridement of the metal-stained synovium, the surgeon finds that the thickness of the remaining patella is 10 mm. Treatment should now include

. insertion of a thicker cement mantle and a thicker patellar insert to achieve a total patellar thickness of 24 mm.
. a lateral release after inserting a standard patella.
. a distal femoral augmentation to maximize the moment-arm on a standard patellar insert.
. leaving the patella alone and performing a lateral release, if necessary, for proper patellar tracking.
. an oversized femoral component to improve the moment-arm on a standard patellar insert.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. leaving the patella alone and performing a lateral release, if necessary, for proper patellar tracking.


Explanation

Revision of a failed patellar component can be difficult because of bone loss and damage to the extensor mechanism. Several authors have advised against reinsertion of a patellar component if the residual patellar thickness is 10 mm or less. Leaving an unresurfaced bony remnant in place at the time of revision or reimplantation surgery has been shown to be a reasonable option; however, the results are of a lower quality when compared with revision surgery where the patellar component can be retained or revised. The other treatment options have not been shown to be effective approaches to this problem. Rand JA: The patellofemoral joint in total knee arthroplasty. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1994;76:612-620. Pagnano MW, Scuderi GR, Insall JN: Patellar component resection in revision and reimplantation total knee arthroplasty. Clin Orthop 1998;356:134-138.

Question 2744

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 73-year-old man has stiffness after undergoing primary posterior cruciate ligament-retaining total knee arthroplasty 18 months ago. Extensive physiotherapy, dynamic splinting, and manipulations under anesthesia have failed to result in improvement. Examination reveals range of motion from 30 degrees to 60 degrees of flexion. The components are well fixed, and the evaluation for infection is negative. In discussing the possibility of revision arthroplasty, the patient should be advised that

. the success of improving range of motion to a functional range of 0 degrees to 90 degrees in the literature is between 75% to 80%.
. the preoperative arc of motion will not influence the ultimate range of motion after formal component revision.
. change from a posterior cruciate ligament-retaining to a posterior cruciate ligament-substituting design has a much greater chance of success.
. manipulation under anesthesia will effectively improve range of motion if postoperative stiffness develops following revision.
. the major postoperative focus will be to regain near full extension.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. the major postoperative focus will be to regain near full extension.


Explanation

Stiffness following primary total knee arthroplasty remains a vexing problem. Treatment options have included extensive physical therapy, dynamic splinting, manipulation under anesthesia, arthroscopic arthrolysis, open arthrolysis with polyethylene exchange, and ultimately revision arthroplasty. Results are not as gratifying as would be expected. Babis and associates performed an open arthrolysis and polyethylene exchange on seven patients who were followed for a mean of 4.2 months. The results were poor. The mean improvement in arc of motion was only 20 degrees. Nicholls and Dorr treated 13 patients for stiffness. Only 40% of those patients obtained good to excellent results. Four patients (30%) required manipulation because of recurrent stiffness postoperatively. They noted they could not predictably improve the arc of motion with a revision operation. Haidukewych and associates reported on 15 patients who underwent revision of well-fixed components after total knee arthroplasty for stiffness. Of the 15 patients, 10 (66%) were satisfied with the outcome revision. Interestingly, they noted that in patients for whom the total arc of motion did not improve but who regained near full extension, there was a greater amount of satisfaction with the procedure than for those who did not regain full extension. Babis GC, Trousdale RT, Pagnano MW, et al: Poor outcomes of isolated tibial insert exchange and arthrolysis for the management of stiffness following total knee arthroplasty. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2001;83:1534-1536. Nicholls DW, Dorr LD: Revision surgery for stiff total knee arthroplasty. J Arthroplasty 1990;5:S73-S77.

Question 2745

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 42-year-old man undergoes right total hip arthroplasty for hip dysplasia. Postoperatively, he has a significant limb-length increase with a foot drop. A preoperative radiograph is shown in Figure 19. Which of the following should have been considered preoperatively to avoid this complication?

General Orthopedics 2026 Practice Questions: Set 17 (Solved) - Figure 50

. Medialization of the acetabular component
. Use of a modular femoral implant
. Anterolateral approach to the hip
. Femoral shortening
. Electromyography

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Femoral shortening


Explanation

In a patient with bilateral hip dysplasia, there are significant technical challenges that need to be addressed to ensure a successful total hip arthroplasty. Restoring the center of the hip may cause significant lengthening and require femoral shortening. Lengthening of greater than 4 cm can lead to sciatic nerve palsy that will present clinically as a foot drop. A high hip center can be used when there is inadequate bone stock in the acetabulum to achieve adequate host bone coverage. A modular femoral implant may be used for a dysplastic hip with significant rotational deformity. Although an anterolateral approach to the hip may decrease the incidence of sciatic nerve palsy during the exposure, it will not be helpful when there is more than 4 cm of limb lengthening. Schmalzried TP, Amstutz HC, Dorey FJ: Nerve palsy associated with total hip replacement: Risk factors and prognosis. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1991;73:1074-1080. Papagelopoulos PJ, Trousdale RT, Lewallen DG: Total hip arthroplasty with femoral osteotomy for proximal femoral deformity. Clin Orthop 1996;332:151-162.

Question 2746

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 62-year-old patient is seen for routine follow-up after undergoing cementless total hip arthroplasty 2 years ago. The patient reports limited range of motion that severely affects daily activities. A radiograph is shown in Figure 51. Management should now consist of:
. observation only.
. nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and protected weight bearing.
. irradiation to the affected area.
. surgical excision.
. surgical excision and postoperative irradiation.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. surgical excision and postoperative irradiation.


Explanation

The patient has symptomatic postoperative heterotopic ossification after total hip arthroplasty. Postoperative prophylactic treatments include nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (usually indomethacin) or low-dose irradiation. The heterotopic ossification shown here is quite mature; therefore, nonsurgical management will not be successful. Surgical excision of grade III or IV heterotopic ossification should be followed with postoperative irradiation to minimize the chances of recurrence. Ayers DC, Evarts CM, Parkinson JR: The prevention of heterotopic ossification in high-risk patients by low-dose radiation therapy after total hip arthroplasty. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1986;68:1423-1430.

Question 2747

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 45-year-old man underwent unipolar hemiarthroplasty reconstruction using cementless fixation for nontraumatic osteonecrosis of the femoral head 5 years ago. He now reports buttock and groin pain that is associated with loading activities. What is the most likely cause of his pain?

. Infection
. Stem loosening
. Acetabular osteonecrosis
. Acetabular cartilage degeneration
. Referred pain from the lumbar spine

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Acetabular cartilage degeneration


Explanation

One of the most common complications of hemiarthroplasty is acetabular cartilage degeneration, resulting in increasing pain. Conversion total hip arthroplasty generally is successful with placement of an acetabular cup. Additionally, many patients with osteonecrosis already have degenerative changes of the acetabular cartilage even though radiographic findings may appear normal. Steinberg ME, Corces A, Fallon M: Acetabular involvement in osteonecrosis of the femoral head. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1999;81:60-65.

Question 2748

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 75-year-old, independently living, highly active community-ambulating female sustains a displaced femoral neck fracture. Compared to treatment with unipolar or bipolar hemiarthroplasty, total hip arthroplasty (THA) for this patient is associated with:

. Lower risk of dislocation
. Lower rate of reoperation
. Shorter operative time
. Decreased perioperative blood loss
. Higher mortality at 1 year

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lower rate of reoperation


Explanation

In the active, physiologically young, older patient with a displaced femoral neck fracture, Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA) provides better functional outcomes and lower rates of reoperation compared to hemiarthroplasty. Reoperations following hemiarthroplasty are often due to acetabular wear, groin pain, or loosening. However, THA is associated with a higher risk of dislocation, longer operative times, and greater blood loss. Mortality rates at 1 year are generally comparable between the two procedures in properly selected patients.

Question 2749

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 24-year-old man is evaluated in the emergency department for a gunshot wound to the right hip. Plain radiographs demonstrate a retained bullet resting entirely within the intra-articular space of the hip joint. CT imaging confirms the bullet is intracapsular, with no major osseous fracture. Which of the following represents the most appropriate initial management?

. Prophylactic intravenous antibiotics and observation
. Arthroscopic or open bullet retrieval
. Intra-articular corticosteroid injection to prevent synovitis
. Systemic lead chelation therapy
. Immediate total hip arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic or open bullet retrieval


Explanation

A retained bullet within a synovial joint (such as the hip or knee) is an absolute indication for surgical retrieval. Intra-articular bullets are bathed in synovial fluid, which dissolves the lead, increasing the risk of systemic lead toxicity (plumbism) and severe mechanical third-body wear to the articular cartilage. Observation or antibiotics alone are inappropriate. Chelation is not indicated unless systemic toxicity is confirmed and the source cannot be removed.

Question 2750

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 30-year-old woman injured the ring finger of her nondominant hand while playing baseball 5 weeks ago. She now reports pain and limited motion of the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint. A lateral fluoroscopy image is shown in Figure 36. Treatment of the PIP joint should consist of

. closed reduction and percutaneous pinning.
. implant arthroplasty.
. arthrodesis.
. volar plate arthroplasty.
. resection arthroplasty.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. volar plate arthroplasty.


Explanation

The patient has a neglected PIP joint fracture-dislocation with comminution involving more than 40% of the volar articular surface of the middle phalanx. Volar plate arthroplasty has been advocated for the treatment of acute unstable and chronic dorsal fracture-dislocations. The volar plate is incised laterally and released from the collateral ligaments. The volar fragments of the middle phalanx are removed and a trough is created for advancement of the volar plate, which is secured with sutures secured on the dorsum of the middle phalanx beneath the extensor mechanism. Dionysian E, Eaton RG: The long-term outcome of volar plate arthroplasty of the proximal interphalangeal joint. J Hand Surg Am 2000;25:429-437. Eaton RG, Malerich MM: Volar plate arthroplasty of the proximal interphalangeal joint: A review of ten years' experience. J Hand Surg Am 1980;5:260-268.

Question 2751

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 72-year-old female presents with severe groin pain and an inability to bear weight after a mechanical fall from standing. Radiographs reveal a displaced intracapsular femoral neck fracture. She has a history of mild hypertension, lives independently, and was an active community ambulator who played tennis twice a week prior to the injury. Which of the following treatments provides the lowest rate of reoperation and best functional outcome?

. In situ pinning with cannulated screws
. Hemiarthroplasty
. Total hip arthroplasty
. Sliding hip screw
. Proximal femoral locking plate

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Total hip arthroplasty


Explanation

In healthy, active, community-ambulating elderly patients with displaced femoral neck fractures, total hip arthroplasty (THA) yields superior functional outcomes (e.g., higher Harris Hip Scores) and significantly lower reoperation rates compared to hemiarthroplasty, despite a slightly higher risk of early dislocation. Internal fixation for displaced fractures in this age group has an unacceptably high rate of failure and reoperation.

Question 2752

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 25-year-old male sustains a displaced intracapsular femoral neck fracture from a fall off a ladder. What is the most appropriate timing and goal of surgical intervention?

. Urgent open reduction and internal fixation to minimize the risk of avascular necrosis
. Elective surgery within 1 week to allow soft tissue swelling to subside
. Immediate total hip arthroplasty to prevent nonunion
. Delayed hemiarthroplasty after medical optimization over 72 hours
. Nonoperative management with prolonged bed rest and skeletal traction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Urgent open reduction and internal fixation to minimize the risk of avascular necrosis


Explanation

Femoral neck fractures in young adults are high-energy injuries considered orthopedic emergencies. Urgent open reduction and internal fixation (typically within 24 hours) is recommended to decompress the intracapsular hematoma and minimize the high risks of avascular necrosis and nonunion.

Question 2753

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 30-year-old male sustains a completely displaced transcervical femoral neck fracture following a fall from height. To minimize the risk of avascular necrosis (AVN), what is the optimal surgical timing and management of this injury?

. Urgent open reduction and internal fixation within 24 hours
. Delayed internal fixation at 72 hours to allow for capsular decompression
. Hemiarthroplasty within 48 hours
. Total hip arthroplasty within 24 hours
. Core decompression and vascularized bone grafting

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Urgent open reduction and internal fixation within 24 hours


Explanation

Femoral neck fractures in young adults are considered relative orthopedic emergencies. Urgent anatomic reduction and stable internal fixation (typically within 24 hours) is critical to preserve the native hip and reduce the incidence of AVN.

Question 2754

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Which of the following represents an absolute contraindication to performing a primary total ankle arthroplasty?

. Avascular necrosis of the talus involving 10% of the body
. End-stage osteoarthritis secondary to recurrent sprains
. Neuropathic (Charcot) joint with loss of protective sensation
. Age greater than 70 years
. Body mass index of 32

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Neuropathic (Charcot) joint with loss of protective sensation


Explanation

Neuropathic (Charcot) arthropathy with loss of protective sensation is an absolute contraindication to total ankle arthroplasty due to unacceptably high rates of failure, bone loss, and component subsidence.

Question 2755

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 35-year-old man falls from a height and sustains a Hawkins Type III talar neck fracture. What is the estimated rate of avascular necrosis (AVN) of the talar body following this specific injury pattern?
. 0-10%
. 15-30%
. 40-50%
. 75-90%
. 100%

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 75-90%


Explanation

Hawkins Type III fractures involve dislocation of both the subtalar and tibiotalar joints, disrupting all three major blood supplies to the talar body. This results in a high risk of avascular necrosis, approximately 75-90%.

Question 2756

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 19-year-old male sustains a posterior sternoclavicular joint dislocation during a rugby match. He complains of mild dysphagia but is hemodynamically stable. What is the most critical next step in management?

. Immediate closed reduction in the emergency department
. CT scan of the chest and neck with intravenous contrast
. Open reduction and internal fixation with a hook plate
. Resection arthroplasty of the medial clavicle
. Sling immobilization and routine outpatient observation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. CT scan of the chest and neck with intravenous contrast


Explanation

Posterior sternoclavicular dislocations can compress critical mediastinal structures, causing dysphagia, dyspnea, or vascular compromise. A CT scan with contrast is mandatory to assess displacement and identify threatened mediastinal anatomy prior to any reduction attempt.

Question 2757

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A 40-year-old woman sustains a coronal shear fracture of the capitellum extending medially to involve the majority of the trochlea. According to the Dubberley classification, what type of fracture is this, and what is the preferred surgical approach?

. Type 1A, lateral approach
. Type 2A, medial approach
. Type 3B, universal posterior approach with olecranon osteotomy
. Type 1B, anterior approach
. Type 3A, extended lateral approach

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Type 3B, universal posterior approach with olecranon osteotomy


Explanation

A coronal shear fracture involving the capitellum and the trochlea is a Dubberley Type 3. Due to the extensive medial involvement, a universal posterior approach, often combined with an olecranon osteotomy, is required for adequate visualization and fixation.

Question 2758

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 22-year-old male sustains a fracture through the proximal pole of the scaphoid. This fracture pattern carries a high risk of avascular necrosis because the primary intraosseous blood supply to the proximal pole enters at which anatomical location?

. The volar proximal pole
. The dorsal proximal pole
. The volar ridge near the distal pole
. The dorsal ridge near the distal pole
. The scaphotrapezial joint capsule

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The dorsal ridge near the distal pole


Explanation

The primary blood supply to the scaphoid arises from the dorsal carpal branch of the radial artery, which enters the dorsal ridge at the distal pole. Blood then flows in a retrograde fashion to supply the proximal pole, predisposing it to avascular necrosis.

Question 2759

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
In total hip arthroplasty, osteolysis is most strongly driven by a macrophage-mediated inflammatory response to ultra-high-molecular-weight polyethylene (UHMWPE) wear particles. What particle size range is most biologically active in stimulating this response?
. Less than 0.1 micrometers
. 0.1 to 1.0 micrometers
. 5.0 to 10.0 micrometers
. 10.0 to 50.0 micrometers
. Greater than 50.0 micrometers

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 0.1 to 1.0 micrometers


Explanation

UHMWPE particles in the submicron range, specifically 0.1 to 1.0 micrometers, are most easily phagocytosed by macrophages. This phagocytosis triggers the release of pro-inflammatory cytokines like TNF-alpha and IL-1, leading to severe osteolysis.

Question 2760

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Alumina ceramics are frequently used as bearing surfaces in total hip arthroplasty. Compared to cobalt-chromium, which of the following is a key biomechanical advantage of ceramic bearings?

. Higher ductility
. Superior fracture toughness
. Lower modulus of elasticity
. Increased resistance to scratching and wear
. Higher coefficient of friction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increased resistance to scratching and wear


Explanation

Ceramics like alumina have extreme hardness and are highly scratch-resistant compared to metal alloys, resulting in exceptional wear characteristics and low friction. However, they are highly brittle and possess low fracture toughness, increasing the risk of catastrophic shattering.