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Question 2341

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 72-year-old female presents with chronic right hip pain beginning 2 years following an uncomplicated total hip arthroplasty. Her ESR is 45 mm/hr and CRP is 2.5 mg/dL. A fluoroscopically guided hip aspiration yields synovial fluid with a white blood cell count of 4,500 cells/ยตL with 85% polymorphonuclear neutrophils. An alpha-defensin immunoassay is positive. According to the MSIS/ICM criteria, what is the most appropriate next surgical step in management?

. Prescribe a 6-week course of oral antibiotics and reassess
. Perform an open biopsy and wait for final culture results before intervening
. Perform an open irrigation and debridement with modular part exchange (DAIR)
. Perform a two-stage revision arthroplasty
. Proceed with a single-stage exchange arthroplasty without delay

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Perform a two-stage revision arthroplasty


Explanation

This patient meets the major and minor criteria for a chronic Periprosthetic Joint Infection (PJI) (elevated ESR/CRP, high synovial WBC and PMN%, positive alpha-defensin). Because the symptoms and the index procedure are chronic (>4 weeks), a debridement, antibiotics, and implant retention (DAIR) procedure is contraindicated due to mature biofilm formation. The gold standard treatment for chronic PJI in North America is a two-stage exchange revision arthroplasty.

Question 2342

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 60-year-old male presents with isolated medial compartment knee osteoarthritis and is being evaluated for a unicompartmental knee arthroplasty (UKA). According to classical indications (Kozinn and Scott), which of the following is considered an absolute contraindication to a fixed-bearing UKA?

. Patient age greater than 55 years
. Presence of a flexible 10-degree varus deformity
. Complete deficiency of the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)
. Radiographic evidence of asymptomatic patellofemoral osteophytes
. Patient weight of 85 kg

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Complete deficiency of the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)


Explanation

Classical criteria for unicompartmental knee arthroplasty (UKA) include an intact anterior cruciate ligament (ACL). ACL deficiency leads to altered knee kinematics, specifically paradoxical anterior translation of the tibia during flexion, which results in accelerated posterior polyethylene wear and early failure of a fixed-bearing UKA. While some modern surgeons perform UKA in ACL-deficient knees using mobile-bearing designs or concurrent ACL reconstruction, an absent ACL remains a classic board-tested contraindication for standard UKA.

Question 2343

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 65-year-old female is 6 months status post a posterior-stabilized total knee arthroplasty (TKA). She presents complaining of a painful "catching" or "popping" sensation at the anterior aspect of her knee specifically when she actively extends her knee from a flexed position. What is the most likely etiology of this complication?

. Patellar maltracking due to internal rotation of the tibial component
. Fibrous nodule formation at the posterior aspect of the quadriceps tendon just proximal to the superior pole of the patella
. Aseptic loosening of the femoral component
. Accelerated polyethylene wear of the articular tibial insert
. Popliteus tendon impingement on the lateral femoral condyle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Fibrous nodule formation at the posterior aspect of the quadriceps tendon just proximal to the superior pole of the patella


Explanation

This presentation is classic for 'patellar clunk syndrome,' a complication most frequently associated with posterior-stabilized TKA designs. It is caused by the formation of a fibrous or fibrosynovial nodule on the posterior aspect of the quadriceps tendon just above the superior pole of the patella. During flexion, the nodule drops into the intercondylar box of the femoral component. As the knee extends, it gets trapped and then suddenly 'clunks' out, causing a painful catching sensation.

Question 2344

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 65-year-old active male underwent a total hip arthroplasty utilizing a ceramic-on-ceramic bearing surface. Two years later, he complains of an audible 'squeaking' sound from his hip during ambulation. Which of the following factors is most strongly associated with this complication?

. Femoral stem subsidence
. Acetabular component edge loading due to malposition
. Polyethylene wear debris
. Adverse local tissue reaction (ALTR)
. Recurrent subluxation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Acetabular component edge loading due to malposition


Explanation

Squeaking is a known complication specific to ceramic-on-ceramic total hip arthroplasties. It is strongly associated with component malposition, specifically increased acetabular anteversion and inclination, which leads to edge loading, loss of fluid lubrication, and micro-separation.

Question 2345

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 68-year-old female with severe valgus osteoarthritis of the knee undergoes a total knee arthroplasty with an extensive lateral soft tissue release.

Postoperatively, she exhibits a foot drop. Which structure is most likely compromised?

. Tibial nerve
. Deep peroneal nerve
. Superficial peroneal nerve
. Common peroneal nerve
. Sural nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Common peroneal nerve


Explanation

Correction of a severe valgus knee deformity during total knee arthroplasty puts the common peroneal nerve at risk for stretch injury or direct trauma, especially following extensive lateral releases or postoperative hematoma formation, leading to a classic foot drop.

Question 2346

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 65-year-old female presents with a painful total knee arthroplasty 2 years post-operatively. Synovial fluid analysis shows a WBC count of 3,500 cells/ยตL with 75% PMNs. The alpha-defensin immunoassay is positive. What is the primary cellular source of alpha-defensin in this context?

. Synovial fibroblasts
. Macrophages
. Neutrophils
. T-lymphocytes
. Osteoblasts

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Neutrophils


Explanation

Alpha-defensin is an antimicrobial peptide released primarily by neutrophils in response to infection. It serves as a highly sensitive and specific biomarker for periprosthetic joint infection.

Question 2347

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A 55-year-old active male underwent a total hip arthroplasty using a ceramic-on-ceramic bearing.

He presents 2 years post-operatively complaining of a squeaking noise from the hip during walking. Which of the following component malpositions is most commonly associated with this phenomenon?

. Acetabular component retroversion
. Femoral component retroversion
. Acetabular component edge loading due to excessive inclination
. Excessive femoral offset
. Insufficient acetabular version

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Acetabular component edge loading due to excessive inclination


Explanation

Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic THA is often associated with edge loading, which typically results from acetabular component malposition, specifically excessive inclination and/or version issues causing loss of fluid film lubrication and subsequent stripe wear.

Question 2348

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During a primary total knee arthroplasty using a measured resection technique, the surgeon utilizes trial components and finds that the knee is symmetric and balanced in full extension, but perfectly symmetric and overly tight in 90 degrees of flexion. Which of the following adjustments is the most appropriate to balance the knee?

. Recut the proximal tibia with more posterior slope
. Increase the size of the polyethylene insert
. Downsize the femoral component
. Release the posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)
. Recut the distal femur to take more bone

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Downsize the femoral component


Explanation

When a knee is balanced in extension but tight in flexion, the flexion gap must be increased without altering the extension gap. The flexion gap is determined by the posterior femoral condyles and the proximal tibia. Recutting the tibia (or changing the poly) would affect both gaps. Downsizing the femoral component (which decreases the anteroposterior dimension of the femur by taking more posterior bone with an anterior referencing system) selectively increases the size of the flexion gap, balancing the knee.

Question 2349

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A 70-year-old patient returns to the emergency department three weeks following an uncomplicated primary total hip arthroplasty (posterior approach) with complaints of sudden severe hip pain. Radiographs demonstrate a posterior dislocation of the femoral component. Closed reduction is successful. In evaluating the cause of this early instability, which of the following component malpositions is the most common etiology for posterior dislocation in THA?

. Acetabular component retroversion
. Acetabular component excessive abduction
. Femoral component excessive anteversion
. Excessive offset reconstruction
. Acetabular component excessive anteversion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Acetabular component retroversion


Explanation

Instability following THA is multifactorial. However, when component malposition is the primary driver of a posterior dislocation, acetabular retroversion (insufficient anteversion) is the most frequent culprit. Normal acetabular anteversion target is 15-20 degrees. Retroversion impinges the anterior neck during internal rotation/flexion, levering the head out posteriorly. Excessive abduction leads to superior escape/instability. Excessive anteversion usually leads to anterior dislocation.

Question 2350

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

In kinematic alignment for Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA), the primary objective is to align the components to the:

. Mechanical axis of the lower extremity
. Anatomic axis of the femur
. Epicondylar axis for femoral rotation
. Pre-arthritic natural joint lines of the femur and tibia
. Whiteside's anteroposterior line

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pre-arthritic natural joint lines of the femur and tibia


Explanation

The goal of kinematic alignment in TKA is to restore the patient's pre-arthritic constitutional alignment and joint line, matching the components to the native flexion and extension axes of the knee. This contrasts with mechanical alignment, which aims to cut the femur and tibia perpendicular to their mechanical axes to achieve a neutral overall limb axis.

Question 2351

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

The retrograde blood supply to the proximal pole of the scaphoid, which places it at high risk for avascular necrosis following fracture, is primarily derived from branches of which artery?

. Ulnar artery
. Anterior interosseous artery
. Superficial palmar arch
. Radial artery
. Deep palmar arch

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Radial artery


Explanation

The primary blood supply to the scaphoid is derived from the radial artery, specifically via its dorsal carpal branch. The vessels enter the scaphoid at the distal pole and along the dorsal ridge, traveling retrogradely to supply the proximal pole. Thus, a proximal pole fracture often disrupts this blood supply, leading to avascular necrosis.

Question 2352

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 68-year-old female presents with recurrent posterior dislocations following a primary Total Hip Arthroplasty performed via a posterior approach. Intraoperative evaluation during revision surgery reveals a well-fixed femoral component with appropriate version and offset. The acetabular component is well-fixed and positioned in 45 degrees of inclination and 5 degrees of retroversion. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

. Exchange the acetabular liner to a constrained liner without revising the shell
. Revise the femoral component to increase anteversion
. Revise the acetabular component to increase anteversion to approximately 20 degrees
. Advance the greater trochanter to increase abductor tension
. Apply a hip spica cast for 6 weeks

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Revise the acetabular component to increase anteversion to approximately 20 degrees


Explanation

The patient's recurrent posterior dislocations are primarily due to acetabular malposition (5 degrees of retroversion). The normal 'safe zone' for acetabular anteversion is 15 to 20 degrees (Lewinnek safe zone: 15 ยฑ 10 degrees). Because the underlying issue is structural malposition of the cup leading to posterior impingement and instability, the definitive treatment is to revise the acetabular shell to appropriate anteversion. Simply placing a constrained liner in a malpositioned shell increases the risk of liner failure or aseptic loosening.

Question 2353

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

During a primary Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA), after the preliminary bony cuts have been made and trial components are placed, the surgeon evaluates the joint spaces.

The surgeon finds that the extension gap is excessively tight, while the flexion gap is perfectly balanced and stable. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step to balance the knee?

. Resect an additional 2 mm of the proximal tibia
. Upsize the femoral component
. Resect an additional 2 mm of the distal femur
. Translate the femoral component anteriorly
. Release the anterior aspect of the superficial medial collateral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Resect an additional 2 mm of the distal femur


Explanation

In TKA gap balancing, modifications to the femoral side affect only one gap, while modifications to the tibial side affect both gaps. A tight extension gap with a balanced flexion gap requires addressing structures that only affect extension. Resecting more distal femur increases the extension gap without changing the flexion gap. Releasing the posterior capsule and removing posterior femoral osteophytes are also valid soft-tissue interventions for a tight extension gap. Modifying the proximal tibia would inappropriately widen the already balanced flexion gap.

Question 2354

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 65-year-old male presents with groin pain and swelling 5 years after an uncomplicated total hip arthroplasty utilizing a dual-taper modular titanium stem and a large diameter cobalt-chromium femoral head. Aspiration yields cloudy fluid with negative cultures. Blood work shows elevated serum cobalt levels with normal chromium levels. What is the primary mechanism of failure?

. Adhesive wear at the bearing surface
. Mechanically assisted crevice corrosion at the head-neck junction
. Galvanic corrosion at the stem-cement interface
. Fatigue fracture of the modular neck
. Aseptic loosening secondary to polyethylene wear debris

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Mechanically assisted crevice corrosion at the head-neck junction


Explanation

The clinical scenario describes trunnionosis, which is mechanically assisted crevice corrosion (MACC) at the modular head-neck junction (trunnion). It is increasingly recognized in THA when large diameter cobalt-chromium heads are paired with titanium alloy stems. The friction and micromotion at the taper junction disrupt the passive oxide layer (fretting), exposing the underlying metal to the fluid environment, leading to crevice corrosion. This classically presents with elevated serum cobalt levels disproportionate to chromium.

Question 2355

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During a total knee arthroplasty (TKA) for a severe varus deformity, the surgeon resects the distal femur and proximal tibia. With spacer blocks inserted, the knee remains tight medially in both flexion and extension. To balance the gaps symmetrically, which structure should be released next?

. Posterior cruciate ligament
. Popliteus tendon
. Lateral collateral ligament
. Deep medial collateral ligament and posteromedial capsule
. Iliotibial band

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Deep medial collateral ligament and posteromedial capsule


Explanation

In a varus knee undergoing TKA, a tight medial gap in both flexion and extension indicates a symmetric medial soft tissue contracture. The standard medial release sequence typically begins with the deep medial collateral ligament (MCL) and the posteromedial capsule. If the gap remains tight, further releases may include the superficial MCL (often off the tibia, maintaining the periosteal sleeve) and the pes anserinus. Releasing the lateral structures (LCL, IT band, popliteus) would worsen the varus imbalance.

Question 2356

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

In modern total hip arthroplasty, the use of highly cross-linked polyethylene (HXLPE) compared to conventional ultra-high-molecular-weight polyethylene is associated with which of the following?

. Increased incidence of catastrophic liner fracture
. Decreased volumetric wear rates and decreased osteolysis
. Increased risk of polyethylene oxidation when annealed
. Higher wear rates when used with larger femoral heads
. Increased risk of impingement due to required thicker liners

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Decreased volumetric wear rates and decreased osteolysis


Explanation

Highly cross-linked polyethylene (HXLPE) was developed to reduce wear debris in THA. Cross-linking via irradiation significantly decreases volumetric wear rates and subsequent particle-induced osteolysis. However, irradiation creates free radicals, which are eliminated by thermal treatments (remelting or annealing) to prevent oxidation, though remelting decreases some mechanical properties.

Question 2357

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 65-year-old man presents with anterior knee pain and a feeling of instability during stair climbing 1 year after a primary total knee arthroplasty.

Examination reveals a lateral patellar tilt. CT scan is performed to evaluate component rotation. Which of the following errors in component positioning is most likely responsible for his symptoms?

. External rotation of the femoral component
. Internal rotation of the femoral component
. External rotation of the tibial component
. Anterior placement of the tibial component
. Joint line depression

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Internal rotation of the femoral component


Explanation

Internal rotation of the femoral component or the tibial component increases the Q angle, leading to lateral patellar maltracking, lateral patellar tilt, and anterior knee pain. External rotation of the components generally improves patellar tracking.

Question 2358

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 60-year-old highly active male undergoes a total hip arthroplasty using a ceramic-on-ceramic (CoC) bearing surface.

Two years postoperatively, he complains of a highly audible 'squeaking' sound emanating from his hip during ambulation. What is the most widely recognized biomechanical cause for squeaking in CoC articulations?

. Use of a larger diameter femoral head
. Femoral stem subsidence
. Acetabular component malposition leading to edge loading
. Inadequate fluid film lubrication due to synovial hyperplasia
. Third-body wear from retained bone cement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Acetabular component malposition leading to edge loading


Explanation

Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic total hip arthroplasties is a known complication. It is strongly associated with component malposition, specifically excessive cup anteversion or abduction, which leads to edge loading. This edge loading disrupts fluid-film lubrication and causes stripe wear on the ceramic head, generating the high-frequency squeaking sound.

Question 2359

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 68-year-old female is undergoing a primary total knee arthroplasty for a severe fixed valgus deformity.

Intraoperatively, after the standard bone cuts, the trial components are placed, and the lateral side is found to be symmetrically tight in BOTH 90 degrees of flexion and full extension. Which lateral soft-tissue structure is the primary restraint to lateral opening in both flexion and extension, and should be released to balance the knee?

. Popliteus tendon
. Lateral collateral ligament (LCL)
. Iliotibial (IT) band
. Lateral head of the gastrocnemius
. Biceps femoris tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral collateral ligament (LCL)


Explanation

In the valgus knee, specific structures affect specific gaps. The iliotibial (IT) band primarily tightens the extension gap. The popliteus tendon primarily tightens the flexion gap. The Lateral Collateral Ligament (LCL) is the primary restraint to varus stress in BOTH flexion and extension. Thus, if both gaps are symmetrically tight laterally, releasing the LCL will increase both gaps.

Question 2360

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 68-year-old female undergoes a total hip arthroplasty via a posterior approach. She subsequently sustains a posterior dislocation. Which of the following component positions most increases the risk of posterior dislocation?

. Increased acetabular anteversion and increased femoral anteversion
. Decreased acetabular anteversion and decreased femoral anteversion
. Increased acetabular abduction angle and increased femoral anteversion
. Decreased acetabular abduction angle and increased acetabular anteversion
. Increased acetabular retroversion and increased femoral retroversion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Decreased acetabular anteversion and decreased femoral anteversion


Explanation

Posterior dislocation of a total hip arthroplasty is most commonly associated with relative retroversion of the components (decreased acetabular anteversion and decreased femoral anteversion). This combined position leads to premature impingement anteriorly during flexion, adduction, and internal rotation, which physically levers the femoral head out of the acetabulum posteriorly.