This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee). Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 2321
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
During a total knee arthroplasty (TKA), the surgeon aims to optimize patellofemoral tracking. Which of the following femoral component positioning errors is most likely to cause patellar maltracking and lateral subluxation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Internal rotation of the femoral component
Explanation
Internal rotation of the femoral component effectively moves the trochlear groove medially relative to the mechanical axis. This increases the Q-angle, leading to lateral patellar maltracking and a higher risk of lateral patellar subluxation or dislocation.
Question 2322
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 72-year-old active female undergoes evaluation for hip pain 8 years after a primary total hip arthroplasty (THA).
Imaging reveals eccentric wear and significant osteolysis. During the revision surgery, bearing surface selection is discussed. Which of the following THA bearing surface combinations boasts the lowest volumetric wear rate, but carries a unique risk of catastrophic brittle failure?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Ceramic-on-ceramic
Explanation
Ceramic-on-ceramic (CoC) articulations possess the highest scratch resistance and the lowest volumetric wear rates of all available bearing couples. However, due to the brittle nature of the ceramic material, CoC bearings carry a unique risk of catastrophic fracture of the ceramic head or liner, as well as the potential for 'squeaking' during gait.
Question 2323
Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)
During a measured resection primary total knee arthroplasty (TKA) for an osteoarthritic varus knee, the surgeon utilizes spacer blocks to assess the gaps. The knee is found to be excessively tight in full extension, but perfectly balanced in 90 degrees of flexion. Which of the following isolated bone resection steps is the most appropriate next maneuver to achieve a balanced knee?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Resect more distal femur
Explanation
In TKA gap balancing, if the knee is tight in extension but balanced in flexion, the surgeon must increase the extension gap without altering the flexion gap. Resecting more bone from the distal femur uniquely opens the extension gap. Resecting more proximal tibia or changing to a thinner polyethylene would affect both the flexion and extension gaps symmetrically, resulting in a knee that becomes loose in flexion.
Question 2324
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 65-year-old active female presents to the emergency department after a mechanical fall. She complains of severe right groin pain and inability to bear weight. A representative radiograph of her injury is shown below.
Assuming the image demonstrates a displaced (Garden IV) femoral neck fracture, which of the following is the most appropriate surgical intervention to maximize her functional outcome and minimize her lifetime revision rate?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Total hip arthroplasty
Explanation
For active, physiologically young older adults (typically 65-75 years old) with displaced femoral neck fractures, Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA) is the treatment of choice. Multiple randomized controlled trials have demonstrated that THA yields better long-term functional outcomes (e.g., higher Harris Hip Scores) and lower reoperation rates compared to hemiarthroplasty. Hemiarthroplasty (unipolar or bipolar) is generally reserved for lower-demand, older, or cognitively impaired patients. Internal fixation with cannulated screws for a Garden IV fracture in this age group carries an unacceptably high risk of nonunion and avascular necrosis.
Question 2325
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
During a primary posterior-stabilized total knee arthroplasty, after making the standard bone cuts and placing trial components, the surgeon assesses the gap kinematics. The knee is perfectly balanced and symmetrical in full extension. However, it is symmetrically tight at 90 degrees of flexion. Which of the following is the most appropriate intraoperative adjustment to achieve gap balance?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Downsize the femoral component and resect more posterior femoral condyle
Explanation
In a situation where the extension gap is perfectly balanced but the flexion gap is symmetrically tight, the surgeon must increase the size of the flexion gap without altering the extension gap. The anterior-posterior (AP) dimension of the femoral component dictates the flexion gap. Downsizing the femoral component and translating it anteriorly to flush the anterior cut, thereby resecting more posterior femoral condyle, specifically increases the flexion gap. Increasing posterior tibial slope also increases the flexion gap but alters the extension gap slightly and may affect overall kinematics.
Question 2326
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 78-year-old female with a history of a posterior-stabilized total knee arthroplasty sustains the injury shown. According to the Lewis and Rorabeck classification, which factor dictates whether open reduction internal fixation (ORIF) or distal femoral replacement (DFR) is the primary treatment of choice?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The stability of the femoral component
Explanation
Distal femur periprosthetic fractures around a TKA are commonly classified using the Lewis and Rorabeck system. Type I: undisplaced, component intact. Type II: displaced, component intact. Type III: displaced or undisplaced, component loose. The defining factor for treatment is component stability. Loose components (Type III) require revision arthroplasty (often DFR), while well-fixed components (Type I or II) are treated with ORIF.
Question 2327
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
During a measured resection posterior-stabilized total knee arthroplasty, the surgeon checks the trial components and notes that the knee is perfectly balanced in full extension but is excessively tight in 90 degrees of flexion. Which of the following interventions will best address this isolated tight flexion gap?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Decrease the anteroposterior size of the femoral component
Explanation
A tight flexion gap with a balanced extension gap implies that the posterior condylar offset is too large. By decreasing the anteroposterior (AP) size of the femoral component, more posterior femoral condyle is resected, which selectively increases (loosens) the flexion gap without affecting the extension gap. Resecting more distal femur or releasing the posterior capsule would alter the extension gap.
Question 2328
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A 55-year-old active female who underwent a ceramic-on-ceramic total hip arthroplasty 2 years ago presents with a loud, audible squeaking during hip flexion. Which of the following is most strongly associated with this complication?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Acetabular component retroversion and edge loading
Explanation
Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic THA is a well-documented phenomenon. It is most strongly associated with component malposition—specifically, excessive acetabular cup abduction or retroversion, which leads to edge loading, stripe wear, and microseparation. Patient factors such as high BMI and younger, more active lifestyles also contribute.
Question 2329
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 68-year-old male presents with insidious onset of anterior thigh pain five years after a primary total hip arthroplasty using a dual-taper modular femoral stem and a cobalt-chromium head. Radiographs are unremarkable. Aseptic joint aspiration reveals cloudy fluid with a normal nucleated cell count but elevated cobalt and chromium ions. During revision surgery, black necrotic debris is noted exclusively around the head-neck junction.
What is the primary underlying electrochemical mechanism responsible for this finding?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Mechanically assisted crevice corrosion (MACC)
Explanation
The clinical scenario and finding of black debris at the modular head-neck taper (trunnion) strongly suggest trunnionosis. The primary mechanism is mechanically assisted crevice corrosion (MACC). Micromotion at the modular interface (fretting) disrupts the protective passive oxide layer on the metal (usually titanium or cobalt-chromium). Once the oxide layer is breached, the crevice environment allows for a local drop in pH and oxygen depletion, accelerating the electrochemical corrosion process. This releases metal ions and debris, leading to adverse local tissue reactions (ALTR).
Question 2330
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A patient undergoes a metal-on-metal total hip arthroplasty. Four years later, they present with pain and a large cystic pseudotumor. Histological analysis of the peri-articular tissue reveals aseptic lymphocytic vasculitis-associated lesions (ALVAL). What is the primary immunologic mechanism driving this specific histological response?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. T-cell mediated delayed hypersensitivity (Type IV hypersensitivity)
Explanation
ALVAL (Aseptic Lymphocytic Vasculitis-Associated Lesions) is characteristic of adverse local tissue reactions (ALTR) in metal-on-metal hip implants. It is driven by a Type IV (delayed) hypersensitivity reaction to metal ions (like cobalt and chromium). This cell-mediated response involves the activation of CD4+ Th1 cells and is characterized histologically by a dense perivascular lymphocytic infiltrate, tissue necrosis, and the formation of pseudotumors, distinguishing it from the simple macrophage-mediated foreign body response seen with conventional polyethylene wear debris.
Question 2331
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 68-year-old female presents with persistent anterior knee pain three years following a primary Posterior Stabilized (PS) Total Knee Arthroplasty.
She reports a distinct 'catching' and 'popping' sensation as her knee extends from roughly 40 degrees of flexion to full extension. What is the most likely pathophysiological cause of this phenomenon?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Patellar clunk syndrome due to a fibrosynovial nodule engaging the intercondylar box
Explanation
The classic presentation of a painless or painful 'pop' or 'clunk' as the knee moves from flexion into extension (typically around 30-45 degrees) in a Posterior Stabilized (PS) TKA is Patellar Clunk Syndrome. It is caused by the formation of a fibrosynovial nodule on the undersurface of the distal quadriceps tendon just superior to the patella. During flexion, this nodule drops into the intercondylar box of the PS femoral component. As the knee extends, the nodule catches on the superior edge of the box and then abruptly pops out, causing the 'clunk'.
Question 2332
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
In the context of total hip arthroplasty (THA), the phenomenon of 'stripe wear' is a localized area of increased wear and surface roughness caused by edge loading during transient microseparation. This is most characteristic of which bearing surface combination?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Ceramic-on-ceramic
Explanation
'Stripe wear' is specifically associated with ceramic-on-ceramic bearings. It occurs when the ceramic femoral head transiently subluxates (microseparation) during the swing phase of gait and contacts the hard rim of the ceramic liner, resulting in a narrow stripe of wear and roughening on the femoral head.
Question 2333
Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)
During a primary total knee arthroplasty (TKA), the surgeon inadvertently places the femoral component in internal rotation relative to the surgical epicondylar axis. This specific technical error is most likely to result in which of the following postoperative issues?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lateral patellar tracking and patellofemoral instability
Explanation
Internal rotation of the femoral component in TKA shifts the trochlear groove medially relative to the extensor mechanism. This effectively increases the Q-angle, predisposing the patient to lateral patellar subluxation, tracking abnormalities, and patellofemoral instability. It also causes tightness in the medial flexion gap.
Question 2334
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
In total hip arthroplasty (THA), which of the following bearing surface combinations is known to have the lowest volumetric wear rate, but carries unique risks of catastrophic squeaking and component fracture?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Ceramic-on-Ceramic
Explanation
Ceramic-on-ceramic (CoC) bearings exhibit the lowest volumetric wear rates of any THA bearing surface, often being nearly unmeasurable in vitro. However, CoC bearings are uniquely associated with complications such as squeaking (reported in up to 10% in some series) and the rare but catastrophic fracture of the ceramic components, often due to edge loading, impingement, or material defects.
Question 2335
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 68-year-old female is evaluated 6 weeks after an uncomplicated primary total knee arthroplasty (TKA). Despite dedicated daily physical therapy, her range of motion remains stalled at 10 to 70 degrees. Radiographs reveal well-fixed and well-aligned components without signs of loosening. What is the most appropriate next step in her management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Manipulation under anesthesia (MUA)
Explanation
Postoperative stiffness after TKA is a well-recognized complication. The optimal timing for manipulation under anesthesia (MUA) is generally between 6 to 12 weeks postoperatively when conservative measures (aggressive PT) have plateaued or failed. Performing an MUA within this window is highly effective for breaking up immature adhesions. Waiting beyond 12 weeks decreases the success rate due to the maturation of dense intra-articular scar tissue.
Question 2336
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
You are reviewing the wear characteristics of total hip arthroplasty (THA) bearing surfaces.
The introduction of highly cross-linked polyethylene (HXLPE) has significantly reduced volumetric wear rates. Which of the following processing steps in HXLPE manufacturing is directly responsible for a decrease in the material's fracture toughness?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Post-irradiation remelting
Explanation
Highly cross-linked polyethylene requires irradiation to form cross-links (which improves wear resistance) but this process generates free radicals. To prevent oxidation, the material undergoes thermal processing. Post-irradiation remelting (heating above the melting point) effectively eliminates free radicals but significantly decreases the material's crystallinity, which compromises its ultimate tensile strength, fatigue strength, and fracture toughness. Annealing or utilizing Vitamin E are alternatives to preserve mechanical properties.
Question 2337
Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)
During a measured resection primary Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA), the surgeon utilizes trial components and notes the knee is perfectly balanced in full extension but excessively tight in flexion.
Which of the following maneuvers is the most appropriate next step to achieve a balanced knee?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Downsize the femoral component
Explanation
In gap balancing principles for TKA, if the knee is balanced in extension but tight in flexion, the flexion gap must be increased without altering the extension gap. Downsizing the femoral component typically shifts the posterior condylar resection anteriorly (assuming anterior referencing or an offset system is used to maintain anterior flushness), effectively resecting more posterior bone and opening the flexion gap. Resecting the tibia alters both gaps equally.
Question 2338
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 55-year-old active female undergoes a primary total hip arthroplasty. The surgeon opts for a ceramic-on-ceramic bearing surface to maximize longevity. Which of the following complications is uniquely associated with this specific bearing couple compared to metal-on-polyethylene?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Squeaking
Explanation
Squeaking is an audible complication unique to hard-on-hard bearings, specifically ceramic-on-ceramic (CoC) total hip arthroplasties. It occurs in up to 10% of CoC THAs and may be related to component malposition, edge loading, or microseparation. Trunnionosis and galvanic corrosion are associated with modular junctions (like a metal head on a metal stem). Pseudotumors are classically linked to metal-on-metal bearings.
Question 2339
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
During a posterior-stabilized total knee arthroplasty, the surgeon evaluates the gaps using trial components.
The assessment demonstrates that the extension gap is perfectly balanced and rectangular, but the flexion gap is excessively tight. What is the most appropriate isolated next step to balance the knee?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Downsize the femoral component
Explanation
If the flexion gap is tight but the extension gap is balanced, the surgeon must alter the flexion gap without affecting the extension space. Downsizing the femoral component (using the same posterior referencing guide, or using an anterior referencing system) translates the posterior condylar surface anteriorly, effectively increasing the flexion space while leaving the distal femoral resection (extension gap) unchanged.
Question 2340
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 65-year-old male who underwent a cementless total hip arthroplasty (THA) 15 years ago presents with new-onset thigh pain. Radiographs reveal eccentric positioning of the femoral head within the acetabular shell and large retroacetabular and proximal femoral radiolucencies.
What is the primary biological mediator released by macrophages that directly stimulates osteoclastogenesis and is responsible for the observed bone loss?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-a)
Explanation
The radiograph demonstrates particle-induced osteolysis, secondary to polyethylene wear debris. When macrophages phagocytose these particles, they release pro-inflammatory cytokines, most notably TNF-a, IL-1, and IL-6. These cytokines stimulate the RANK/RANKL pathway, activating osteoclasts and leading to significant periprosthetic bone loss. IL-10 and IL-4 are anti-inflammatory cytokines, while IFN-y actually inhibits osteoclastogenesis.
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