This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA). Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 421
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A patient complains that their operative leg feels substantially longer following a primary THA. Postoperative anteroposterior pelvic radiographs indicate that the vertical distance from the inter-teardrop line to the lesser trochanter on the operative side is 15 mm greater than on the unoperated side. Global offset is equal bilaterally. Which surgical error most likely caused this leg length discrepancy?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Insufficient (too high) femoral neck resection resulting in a high head center
Explanation
An insufficient femoral neck resection leaves too much host bone, which artificially elevates the center of rotation on the femoral side when the stem is fully seated, resulting in direct leg lengthening without changing offset.
Question 422
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A 68-year-old man presents with recurrent posterior dislocations of his total hip arthroplasty (THA). He underwent a primary THA through a posterior approach 6 months ago. Radiographs demonstrate a well-fixed, uncemented acetabular cup with 40 degrees of inclination and 0 degrees of anteversion. The femoral stem is well-fixed with 15 degrees of anteversion.
To optimally stabilize this hip during revision surgery, the surgeon should aim to:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Increase the cup anteversion to 20 degrees
Explanation
This patient's recurrent posterior dislocations are primarily driven by inadequate acetabular cup anteversion (currently 0 degrees). The optimal 'safe zone' for acetabular component positioning is historically described by Lewinnek as 40 ± 10 degrees of inclination and 15 ± 10 degrees of anteversion. Increasing the cup anteversion to roughly 20 degrees will provide anterior coverage and prevent the femoral head from levering out posteriorly during flexion and internal rotation. Increasing inclination (Option A) increases edge-loading and risk of superior dislocation. Decreasing stem anteversion (Option C) or shortening the neck (Option D) would further increase the risk of posterior instability.
Question 423
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A 55-year-old woman complains of new-onset, sharp groin pain radiating to the anterior thigh 8 months after an uncomplicated primary total hip arthroplasty. The pain is worst when initiating movement, particularly when lifting her leg to get into a car or climbing stairs. Physical examination reveals severe pain with resisted active straight leg raise. A diagnostic anesthetic injection into the psoas bursa provides complete relief. Which of the following is the most common radiographic finding associated with this condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Prominent anterior edge of the acetabular component
Explanation
The patient is experiencing classic symptoms of iliopsoas impingement post-THA. The primary clinical sign is pain with active hip flexion (resisted straight leg raise), often described as 'start-up' groin pain. The condition is definitively diagnosed when an image-guided anesthetic injection into the iliopsoas bursa relieves the symptoms. The most common underlying structural cause is an overhanging or prominent anterior rim of the acetabular cup, which mechanically irritates the iliopsoas tendon as it courses over the anterior brim of the pelvis.
Question 424
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A 65-year-old man presents with his third posterior dislocation of a total hip arthroplasty performed 6 months ago via a posterior approach. Radiographs reveal the acetabular component has 5 degrees of anteversion and 40 degrees of abduction. The femoral stem is well-fixed with 15 degrees of anteversion. What is the most appropriate surgical management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Revision of the acetabular component to increase anteversion
Explanation
The combined anteversion (cup + stem) in this patient is 20 degrees, which is low and predisposes to posterior instability. The normal safe zone for the acetabular component is typically 15-20 degrees of anteversion. Since the cup is retroverted/under-anteverted (5 degrees), revising the cup to increase anteversion is the most appropriate biomechanical solution. Constrained liners are generally reserved for abductor deficiency, massive soft tissue compromise, or cognitive impairment when the components are already optimally positioned.
Question 425
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A 68-year-old woman complains that her operative leg feels "too long" 6 weeks after a right total hip arthroplasty. On physical examination with her pelvis leveled, her right medial malleolus is 2 cm distal to the left medial malleolus. On the standard postoperative AP pelvis radiograph, the vertical distance from the inter-teardrop line to the right lesser trochanter is 35 mm, and the distance to the left lesser trochanter is 35 mm. What is the most likely cause of her perceived leg length discrepancy?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Pelvic obliquity secondary to abductor muscle contracture
Explanation
Radiographically, the patient's leg lengths are symmetric because the distance from the bilateral teardrops (a fixed pelvic landmark) to the lesser trochanters (a fixed femoral landmark) is equal at 35 mm. The patient is experiencing an apparent (functional) leg length discrepancy. This is most commonly caused by pelvic obliquity due to abductor spasm, contracture, or concurrent lumbar spine pathology in the early postoperative period. True limb lengthening (options A, C, E) would result in a greater teardrop-to-lesser trochanter distance on the operative side.
Question 426
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A 62-year-old female presents with recurrent anterior dislocations of her total hip arthroplasty (THA). The original surgery was performed via a posterior approach. Which of the following combinations of component positioning is most classically associated with an anterior dislocation mechanism?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Excessive acetabular anteversion and excessive femoral anteversion
Explanation
Anterior dislocations in THA are most commonly caused by excessive combined anteversion (excessive acetabular anteversion and excessive femoral anteversion) or a mechanism of extension and external rotation. Conversely, posterior dislocations are associated with component retroversion (acetabular retroversion and/or femoral retroversion) and typically occur with hip flexion, adduction, and internal rotation.
Question 427
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A 72-year-old woman presents with recurrent posterior dislocations following a primary total hip arthroplasty performed via a posterior approach. Radiographic evaluation demonstrates the acetabular component is positioned in 35 degrees of abduction and 5 degrees of retroversion. The femoral stem has 15 degrees of anteversion. What is the most appropriate surgical management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Revision of the acetabular component to increase anteversion
Explanation
Recurrent posterior instability in the setting of a retroverted acetabular cup (normal target is typically 15-20 degrees of anteversion and 40 degrees of abduction) is best managed by revising the malpositioned component. While constrained liners can treat instability due to abductor deficiency, they should not be used as a primary solution for severe component malposition, as this leads to early failure of the constrained mechanism.
Question 428
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A 65-year-old woman experiences recurrent anterior dislocations after a primary total hip arthroplasty performed via a posterior approach. Radiographs demonstrate that the acetabular component is placed in 35 degrees of anteversion and 50 degrees of inclination. The femoral stem is placed in 25 degrees of anteversion. What is the most appropriate definitive management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Revision of the acetabular component to decrease anteversion and inclination
Explanation
The patient's combined anteversion (cup 35 degrees + stem 25 degrees = 60 degrees) is excessively high, predisposing her to anterior dislocation. The cup is also excessively abducted (50 degrees). Normal combined anteversion should be approximately 25-35 degrees (e.g., cup 15-20 degrees, stem 10-15 degrees) according to the widely accepted Lewinnek or combined safe zones. To correct this mechanical instability, the acetabular component needs to be revised to decrease both anteversion and inclination.
Question 429
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A 50-year-old active man with a ceramic-on-ceramic total hip arthroplasty reports a high-pitched squeaking noise from his hip during deep flexion activities. He is otherwise asymptomatic. Which of the following factors has been most strongly associated with squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic THA?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Edge loading due to component malposition
Explanation
Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic (CoC) total hip arthroplasty is a well-documented phenomenon. It is most strongly associated with edge loading, which typically results from component malposition (e.g., excessive cup inclination or version). This leads to impingement, stripe wear on the ceramic head, and subsequent loss of fluid film lubrication.
Question 430
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A 65-year-old man presents with recurrent posterior dislocations following a primary total hip arthroplasty (THA) performed via a posterior approach 6 months ago. He has no signs of infection and neurologic exam is intact. Radiographic evaluation and subsequent CT scan demonstrate that the acetabular component is placed in 10 degrees of anteversion and 40 degrees of abduction. The femoral component is noted to be in 10 degrees of retroversion. Which of the following component adjustments during revision surgery would most effectively reduce his risk of future posterior dislocations?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Increase femoral anteversion
Explanation
This patient has recurrent posterior dislocations due to inadequate combined anteversion. The widely accepted target for combined anteversion (acetabular anteversion + femoral anteversion) is approximately 25 to 45 degrees (Widmer's or McKibbin's principles adapted for THA). In this scenario, the acetabular component has 10 degrees of anteversion, and the femoral component has 10 degrees of retroversion (which acts as -10 degrees). Therefore, the combined anteversion is 0 degrees. To restore stability and prevent posterior dislocation, the combined anteversion must be increased. This can be achieved by increasing either the acetabular anteversion or the femoral anteversion. Decreasing offset, decreasing head size, or increasing abduction would either worsen instability or have minimal effect on the underlying version mismatch.
Question 431
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A 65-year-old woman undergoes a primary total hip arthroplasty (THA) via a direct anterior approach. Three weeks postoperatively, she sustains an anterior dislocation of the prosthetic hip while lying in bed and reaching behind her (hip in extension and external rotation). Which of the following acetabular component malpositions most likely contributed to this specific complication?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Excessive anteversion
Explanation
Anterior dislocation of a THA typically occurs when the hip is placed in extension and external rotation. A major risk factor for this instability pattern is excessive combined anteversion, most commonly from excessive acetabular component anteversion. Posterior dislocations, conversely, are associated with flexion and internal rotation and are linked to acetabular retroversion.
Question 432
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A 68-year-old male sustained a posterior dislocation of his right THA 6 weeks postoperatively after tying his shoes. Figure 3 shows his radiograph.
Assuming component malposition was the primary etiology, which combination most commonly predisposes to a posterior dislocation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Acetabular retroversion and femoral retroversion
Explanation
Posterior dislocation is the most common direction of instability following THA, typically occurring when the hip is placed in a position of flexion, adduction, and internal rotation (e.g., tying shoes). Component malpositioning that decreases the anterior coverage or clearance heavily predisposes the hip to dislocate posteriorly. Specifically, relative retroversion of the acetabular component combined with retroversion of the femoral component severely restricts internal rotation before impingement occurs, levering the head out posteriorly.
Question 433
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A 42-year-old female complains of localized anterior groin pain 1 year following an uncemented THA. The pain is worst when actively lifting her leg to get into a car or actively performing a straight leg raise. A diagnostic injection of local anesthetic into the iliopsoas bursa provides complete, temporary relief. Which acetabular component factor is the most likely structural cause of this complication?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior overhang of the acetabular cup
Explanation
The clinical presentation describes iliopsoas impingement (iliopsoas tendinitis) following THA. This condition typically presents with groin pain aggravated by active hip flexion (e.g., straight leg raise, getting into a car). The most common iatrogenic cause is anterior overhang of the acetabular component, which can occur due to inadequate medialization, relative retroversion of the cup, or utilizing an oversized cup. The prominent anterior rim irritates the iliopsoas tendon as it glides over the joint.
Question 434
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A surgeon is performing a primary THA utilizing the direct anterior approach (DAA). To minimize the risk of injury to the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve (LFCN), the superficial internervous plane is developed between the tensor fasciae latae (TFL) and the sartorius. During the approach, understanding the variable anatomy of the LFCN is critical. The main trunk of the LFCN most typically crosses the inguinal ligament at what anatomic location?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 1 to 2 cm medial to the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS)
Explanation
The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve (LFCN) typically exits the pelvis by passing under the inguinal ligament approximately 1 to 2 cm medial to the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS). It then courses distally over the sartorius muscle into the thigh. Incisions placed too medially or over-retraction medially during the direct anterior approach can injure this nerve, leading to meralgia paresthetica.
Question 435
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
During preoperative planning for a primary total hip arthroplasty in a patient with significant coxa vara, the surgeon decides to use a high-offset femoral stem. Compared to a standard-offset stem, what is the primary biomechanical advantage of increasing femoral offset?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Increasing the abductor moment arm without increasing leg length
Explanation
Increasing the femoral offset directly increases the lever arm of the abductor muscles. This improves the mechanical advantage of the abductors, reduces the required muscle force to level the pelvis, decreases the overall joint reaction force, and enhances hip soft-tissue tension and stability. A high-offset stem achieves this lateral translation of the femur without increasing vertical leg length.
Question 436
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A 68-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with an anterior dislocation of her primary total hip arthroplasty (THA). The index procedure was performed 6 weeks ago via a standard posterior approach. Which of the following component malpositions is most likely responsible for this specific direction of dislocation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Excessive cup anteversion and excessive stem anteversion
Explanation
Anterior dislocation of a THA is most commonly associated with excessive combined anteversion of the acetabular and femoral components. In this scenario, excessive anteversion leads to posterior impingement of the femoral neck against the posterior acetabular rim during extension and external rotation. This impingement levers the femoral head out of the acetabulum anteriorly. Conversely, retroversion of the components typically leads to anterior impingement and posterior dislocation.
Question 437
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A 64-year-old man presents with progressive groin pain and swelling 6 years after a metal-on-polyethylene total hip arthroplasty utilizing a large-diameter cobalt-chromium femoral head on a titanium stem. Serum cobalt levels are markedly elevated (15 ppb) while chromium levels are normal (1.5 ppb). What is the most likely source of the elevated metal ions?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Mechanically assisted crevice corrosion at the head-neck junction
Explanation
Markedly elevated cobalt levels with normal or mildly elevated chromium levels in the setting of a metal-on-polyethylene THA suggests mechanically assisted crevice corrosion (trunnionosis). This occurs at the modular head-neck taper junction.
Question 438
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A 55-year-old man reports a new-onset squeaking noise originating from his hip when walking, 4 years after undergoing a primary total hip arthroplasty. Radiographs show a well-fixed uncemented titanium stem and acetabular shell with a ceramic-on-ceramic bearing. Which of the following factors is most strongly associated with the development of squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic THA?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Acetabular component malposition
Explanation
Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic THA is most strongly associated with acetabular cup malposition, particularly excessive inclination and retroversion. This malposition leads to edge loading, loss of fluid film lubrication, and stripe wear.
Question 439
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
Postoperatively, a THA patient complains that their operative leg feels "too long." Radiographs confirm the vertical distance from the teardrop to the lesser trochanter is equal bilaterally, but the horizontal distance is increased by 15 mm on the operative side. What is the most likely clinical consequence?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Trochanteric bursitis
Explanation
The radiograph describes an increase in femoral offset without a vertical leg length discrepancy. Over-offsetting increases tension on the abductor mechanism and iliotibial band, highly predisposing the patient to trochanteric bursitis.
Question 440
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A 60-year-old female presents with persistent lateral hip pain and a positive Trendelenburg sign 6 months after a posterior approach THA. MRI demonstrates a complete avulsion of the conjoined tendon of the abductors. Where does the primary insertion of the gluteus medius strictly lie?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lateral and superoposterior facets of the greater trochanter
Explanation
The gluteus medius primarily inserts onto the lateral and superoposterior facets of the greater trochanter. The gluteus minimus inserts more anteriorly onto the anterior facet.
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