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Question 401

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

During revision surgery of a modular total hip arthroplasty, the surgeon notes black particulate debris and severe tissue staining around the modular head-neck junction. The implant system consists of a titanium-alloy femoral stem and a cobalt-chromium alloy femoral head. Which combination of corrosive mechanisms is primarily responsible for this specific presentation (trunnionosis)?

. Pitting and crevice corrosion
. Galvanic and fretting corrosion
. Intergranular and stress corrosion
. Uniform and microbiologically induced corrosion
. Erosion and cavitation corrosion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Galvanic and fretting corrosion


Explanation

Trunnionosis refers to the wear and corrosion at the modular head-neck junction of a total hip replacement. When mixed metals are used (e.g., Ti stem and CoCr head), it is driven by mechanically assisted crevice corrosion. This process fundamentally combines fretting corrosion (micromotion physically stripping the protective passivation layer) and galvanic corrosion (an electrochemical potential difference established between the dissimilar metals when bathed in body fluids).

Question 402

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

During a direct lateral approach to the hip (Hardinge), proximal splitting of the gluteus medius must be limited to avoid denervation of the muscle. What is the generally accepted safe limit for proximal dissection from the tip of the greater trochanter?

. 1 cm
. 3 cm
. 5 cm
. 8 cm
. 10 cm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 5 cm


Explanation

The superior gluteal nerve runs approximately 3 to 5 cm proximal to the tip of the greater trochanter. Dissection is typically limited to a maximum of 5 cm to prevent denervation of the anterior gluteus medius and minimus.

Question 403

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

During a posterior (Kocher-Langenbeck) approach to the hip, which structure provides the primary protection to the medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA) during the capsulotomy?

. Piriformis tendon
. Obturator externus tendon
. Obturator internus tendon
. Quadratus femoris muscle
. Superior gemellus tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Obturator externus tendon


Explanation

The deep branch of the MFCA runs superficial to the obturator externus but deep to the quadratus femoris. Preserving the obturator externus tendon protects the major blood supply to the femoral head during a posterior approach.

Question 404

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

Which specific branch of the medial circumflex femoral artery (MCFA) provides the primary blood supply to the weight-bearing dome of the femoral head in an adult, making it critical to protect during posterior approaches to the hip?

. Anterior branch
. Ascending branch
. Deep branch
. Transverse branch
. Acetabular branch

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Deep branch


Explanation

The deep branch of the medial circumflex femoral artery travels posteriorly and superiorly along the femoral neck beneath the quadratus femoris. It gives rise to the lateral epiphyseal arteries, which supply the majority of the weight-bearing portion of the adult femoral head.

Question 405

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

During a posterior approach to the hip (Kocher-Langenbeck), the short external rotators are divided. The deep branch of the medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA) provides the main blood supply to the femoral head. It is at greatest risk of iatrogenic injury if which of the following structures is released too close to its femoral insertion?

. Piriformis
. Obturator internus
. Quadratus femoris
. Gluteus medius
. Superior gemellus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Quadratus femoris


Explanation

The deep branch of the MFCA courses adjacent to the superior border of the quadratus femoris. Releasing the quadratus femoris, especially near its femoral insertion, risks dividing this critical vessel.

Question 406

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

During a posterior approach to the humerus for plate fixation of a midshaft fracture, the radial nerve is identified within the spiral groove. Which muscle head must be sharply split to expose the bone directly beneath the nerve in this region?

. Long head of the triceps
. Medial head of the triceps
. Lateral head of the triceps
. Brachialis
. Brachioradialis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medial head of the triceps


Explanation

In the posterior approach to the humerus, the superficial interval is between the lateral and long heads of the triceps. Deeper exposure of the humeral shaft requires splitting the medial head of the triceps, which lies directly over the periosteum.

Question 407

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

During a posterior approach to the hip, an artery is at risk of iatrogenic injury if the quadratus femoris is divided too far proximally. This artery typically courses between the quadratus femoris and which of the following structures?

. Piriformis
. Obturator internus
. Obturator externus
. Superior gemellus
. Gluteus minimus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Obturator externus


Explanation

The deep branch of the medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA) provides the primary blood supply to the femoral head. It is located in the interval between the obturator externus and the quadratus femoris, making it vulnerable if the quadratus femoris is released too proximally.

Question 408

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A posterior approach (Kocher-Langenbeck) is utilized for an open reduction and internal fixation of a transverse acetabular fracture. The surgeon takes care to protect the primary blood supply to the femoral head. The primary vessel supplying the adult femoral head courses between which two muscles prior to piercing the posterior hip capsule?

. Pectineus and iliopsoas
. Quadratus femoris and obturator externus
. Gluteus medius and piriformis
. Superior gemellus and obturator internus
. Adductor brevis and adductor magnus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Quadratus femoris and obturator externus


Explanation

The medial circumflex femoral artery (MCFA) is the predominant blood supply to the adult femoral head. It branches from the profunda femoris, passes anteriorly between the pectineus and iliopsoas, and then courses posteriorly between the obturator externus and quadratus femoris. Protecting the obturator externus during posterior hip approaches helps prevent iatrogenic injury to the MCFA.

Question 409

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

During a standard Kocher-Langenbeck (posterior) approach to the hip for an associated posterior wall acetabular fracture, the surgeon performs a tenotomy of the short external rotators. To protect the main blood supply to the femoral head, which of the following muscles should ideally remain intact because its tendon directly overlies and protects the deep branch of the medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA)?

. Piriformis
. Superior gemellus
. Obturator internus
. Obturator externus
. Quadratus femoris

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Obturator externus


Explanation

The deep branch of the medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA) provides the predominant blood supply to the femoral head. It courses consistently posterior to the tendon of the obturator externus. Maintaining the obturator externus during a posterior approach to the hip protects this crucial vessel from iatrogenic injury.

Question 410

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A 65-year-old man experiences recurrent posterior dislocations after a primary THA. Radiographs (

) show the acetabular component in 30 degrees of inclination and 5 degrees of retroversion. The femoral stem is neutrally versioned. Which surgical intervention is most likely to resolve the instability?

. Exchange to a longer femoral head
. Placement of an elevated rim liner posteriorly
. Revision of the acetabular component to 15 degrees of anteversion
. Revision of the femoral stem to 15 degrees of retroversion
. Conversion to a constrained liner

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Revision of the acetabular component to 15 degrees of anteversion


Explanation

The primary cause of the recurrent posterior instability is acetabular component retroversion. Revising the cup to the safe zone (roughly 40 degrees inclination and 15-20 degrees anteversion) directly addresses the structural root cause of the dislocations.

Question 411

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A 45-year-old active male underwent a cementless THA with a ceramic-on-ceramic bearing. Three years postoperatively, he complains of a new, audible squeaking sound from his hip during deep flexion. Radiographs demonstrate well-fixed components with the acetabular cup placed at 60 degrees of inclination and 30 degrees of anteversion.

What is the most likely cause of the squeaking?

. Normal bearing noise
. Edge loading due to component malposition
. Third-body wear
. Impingement of the psoas tendon
. Femoral stem loosening

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Edge loading due to component malposition


Explanation

Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic THA is often associated with edge loading, which disrupts the fluid film lubrication. This is most commonly caused by component malposition, such as excessive cup inclination or anteversion.

Question 412

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A 55-year-old active man presents with an audible squeaking sound originating from his hip that occurs when bending or walking.

He underwent a primary total hip arthroplasty (THA) 4 years ago utilizing a ceramic-on-ceramic bearing. Which of the following factors is most strongly associated with the development of this complication?

. Short femoral neck length
. Malposition of the acetabular component leading to edge loading
. High body mass index (BMI)
. Use of an oversized femoral stem
. Impingement of the iliopsoas tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Malposition of the acetabular component leading to edge loading


Explanation

Squeaking is a known complication of ceramic-on-ceramic THA bearings, occurring in up to 10% of patients. It is most strongly associated with component malposition, specifically acetabular cup steepness or malversion, which leads to edge loading and loss of fluid film lubrication.

Question 413

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A 71-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with severe hip pain and inability to bear weight after bending over to pick up an object from the floor.

She underwent a primary THA via a posterior approach 6 weeks ago. Which specific combination of hip movements most commonly precipitates this specific complication?

. Hip extension, external rotation, and abduction
. Hip flexion, adduction, and internal rotation
. Hip flexion, abduction, and external rotation
. Hip extension, adduction, and internal rotation
. Hip flexion and neutral rotation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hip flexion, adduction, and internal rotation


Explanation

Posterior dislocation is the most common direction of instability following a THA performed via a posterior approach. The classic mechanism of injury involves a combination of hip flexion, adduction, and internal rotation, which levers the femoral head out posteriorly.

Question 414

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

Following a primary THA performed via a direct lateral (Hardinge) approach, a patient presents with a persistent Trendelenburg gait at 6 months postoperatively.

Which nerve and corresponding muscle group are most at risk of injury with excessive superior splitting of the muscle in this approach?

. Inferior gluteal nerve innervating the gluteus maximus
. Superior gluteal nerve innervating the gluteus medius
. Sciatic nerve innervating the hamstring musculature
. Femoral nerve innervating the quadriceps
. Obturator nerve innervating the hip adductors

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Superior gluteal nerve innervating the gluteus medius


Explanation

The direct lateral approach involves splitting the gluteus medius and minimus. Proximal extension of this split greater than 3 to 5 cm from the greater trochanter places the superior gluteal nerve at high risk, resulting in denervation of the abductors and a Trendelenburg lurch.

Question 415

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A polished, double-tapered, collarless cemented femoral stem is chosen for an 80-year-old patient undergoing THA.

On which biomechanical principle does this specific stem design rely to achieve and maintain stability?

. Shape-closed (composite beam) fixation
. Force-closed (taper-slip) fixation
. Biological osteointegration
. Proximally coated diaphyseal fixation
. Distal cortical interference fit

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Force-closed (taper-slip) fixation


Explanation

Polished, double-tapered stems act as a wedge and rely on force-closed (taper-slip) mechanics, allowing the stem to subside slightly within the cement mantle to increase radial compressive forces. In contrast, shape-closed designs rely on a roughened surface bonding to the cement.

Question 416

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

Proper orientation of the acetabular component is critical to minimize the risk of dislocation after THA.

According to the historically established "Lewinnek safe zone", what are the optimal target angles for acetabular inclination (abduction) and anteversion?

. Inclination 40 ± 10 degrees, Anteversion 15 ± 10 degrees
. Inclination 30 ± 5 degrees, Anteversion 25 ± 5 degrees
. Inclination 50 ± 10 degrees, Anteversion 0 ± 5 degrees
. Inclination 20 ± 10 degrees, Anteversion 30 ± 10 degrees
. Inclination 45 ± 5 degrees, Retroversion 5 ± 5 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Inclination 40 ± 10 degrees, Anteversion 15 ± 10 degrees


Explanation

Lewinnek famously described a radiographic safe zone for acetabular cup placement consisting of an inclination (abduction) of 40 ± 10 degrees and an anteversion of 15 ± 10 degrees. While modern dynamic spinopelvic parameters adjust these targets, Lewinnek's values remain a foundational concept.

Question 417

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A 45-year-old woman underwent a ceramic-on-ceramic THA 3 years ago. She now complains of a high-pitched squeaking noise during gait, without significant pain. Radiographs are unremarkable. Which of the following conditions is most strongly associated with this phenomenon?

. Acetabular component anteversion of 15 degrees
. Acetabular component inclination of 35 degrees
. Edge loading due to component malposition
. Femoral stem retroversion
. Femoral offset increase of 5 mm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Edge loading due to component malposition


Explanation

Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic THA is highly associated with edge loading, often caused by acetabular cup malposition (excessive inclination or extreme version). Edge loading disrupts fluid film lubrication, leading to stripe wear and audible noise.

Question 418

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

In modern total hip arthroplasty, the use of large-diameter femoral heads has increased to reduce the risk of dislocation. However, which of the following is a recognized trade-off when using a large-diameter cobalt-chromium head on a standard titanium femoral stem trunnion?

. Increased risk of polyethylene catastrophic failure
. Increased frictional torque at the head-neck junction predisposing to trunnionosis
. Decreased range of motion prior to impingement
. Increased jump distance requirement
. Decreased incidence of squeaking

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increased frictional torque at the head-neck junction predisposing to trunnionosis


Explanation

Large-diameter metal heads increase the frictional torque at the modular head-neck junction. This micro-motion exacerbates mechanically assisted crevice corrosion (trunnionosis), leading to adverse local tissue reactions.

Question 419

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

During a direct anterior approach for THA, the surgeon uses fluoroscopy to assess leg length and offset. Which of the following anatomical landmarks provides the most reliable horizontal reference on an AP pelvis radiograph for evaluating leg length discrepancy intraoperatively?

. The distance from the lesser trochanter to the inter-teardrop line
. The center of the femoral head to the greater trochanter
. The inferior aspect of the SI joint to the lesser trochanter
. The superior pubic ramus to the greater trochanter
. The obturator foramen to the tip of the greater trochanter

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The distance from the lesser trochanter to the inter-teardrop line


Explanation

The inter-teardrop line serves as a reliable horizontal pelvic reference. Measuring the perpendicular distance from this line to the lesser trochanter provides an accurate assessment of radiographic leg length discrepancy.

Question 420

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A 55-year-old woman presents with an apathetic abductor lurch (Trendelenburg gait) 6 months after a primary THA performed via a direct lateral (Hardinge) approach. Physical exam shows profound weakness in hip abduction. Which neurologic structure was most likely injured during the proximal extension of the split in the gluteus medius?

. Inferior gluteal nerve
. Superior gluteal nerve
. Sciatic nerve
. Femoral nerve
. Pudendal nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Superior gluteal nerve


Explanation

The superior gluteal nerve innervates the gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, and tensor fasciae latae. Extending the proximal muscle split more than 3 to 5 cm proximal to the tip of the greater trochanter places this nerve at high risk during a direct lateral approach.