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Question 301

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

Which patient or surgical factor is most strongly associated with squeaking in a ceramic-on-ceramic total hip arthroplasty?

. Retroverted acetabular component
. Edge loading due to steep cup abduction
. Short femoral neck offset
. Use of an un-cemented titanium stem
. High body mass index

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Edge loading due to steep cup abduction


Explanation

Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic THAs is strongly associated with edge loading, which often results from component malpositioning such as increased cup abduction (a vertical cup) or excessive anteversion. Microseparation during the swing phase also contributes.

Question 302

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A 55-year-old active male with a ceramic-on-ceramic THA complains of an audible squeaking sound from his hip when walking. Which of the following is the most significant risk factor for this phenomenon?

. Patient body mass index < 25
. Excessive cup anteversion leading to edge loading
. Use of a titanium femoral stem
. Elevated serum cobalt levels
. A 28mm femoral head size

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Excessive cup anteversion leading to edge loading


Explanation

Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic THA is highly associated with edge loading, which often results from component malposition, such as a steeply abducted or excessively anteverted acetabular cup.

Question 303

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

Following a total hip arthroplasty, the patient complains that the operative leg feels too long. Postoperative radiographs reveal the center of rotation of the femoral head is superior to the tip of the greater trochanter, and the teardrop-to-lesser trochanter distance is increased by 15 mm compared to the contralateral side. Which intraoperative adjustment would have best prevented this?

. Using a femoral head with a shorter neck length
. Using a femoral stem with a high offset
. Placing the acetabular cup more inferiorly
. Increasing the neck cut resection level
. Using a lateralized liner

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increasing the neck cut resection level


Explanation

Increasing the neck cut resection level lowers the seating of the femoral stem, effectively decreasing leg length without necessarily compromising femoral offset. While a shorter head would also decrease leg length, it would simultaneously decrease offset and potentially compromise stability.

Question 304

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A 55-year-old active male presents with an audible squeaking sound from his hip 2 years after a ceramic-on-ceramic total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following component positions is most highly associated with this complication?

. Acetabular cup excessive inclination
. Femoral stem varus
. Femoral stem excessive anteversion
. Acetabular cup excessive medialization
. Acetabular cup retroversion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Acetabular cup excessive inclination


Explanation

Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic total hip arthroplasty is most commonly associated with component malposition, specifically excessive acetabular cup inclination and anteversion. Edge loading due to these malpositions causes microseparation and squeaking.

Question 305

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

During a direct lateral (Hardinge) approach to the hip, proximal splitting of the gluteus medius is limited to prevent injury to the superior gluteal nerve. What is the generally accepted maximum safe distance for splitting the gluteus medius proximal to the tip of the greater trochanter?

. 2 cm
. 5 cm
. 8 cm
. 10 cm
. 12 cm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 2 cm


Explanation

The superior gluteal nerve innervates the gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, and tensor fasciae latae. Splitting the gluteus medius more than 5 cm proximal to the greater trochanter places the nerve branches at significant risk.

Question 306

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

In a direct anterior approach to the hip, careful deep dissection is required. In a different scenario where an adductor tenotomy and obturator nerve block are performed for spasticity, the surgeon isolates the anterior and posterior divisions of the obturator nerve. These divisions are anatomically separated by which of the following muscles?

. Adductor longus
. Adductor brevis
. Adductor magnus
. Pectineus
. Gracilis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Adductor longus


Explanation

After exiting the obturator foramen, the obturator nerve divides into anterior and posterior branches. These branches descend on either side of the adductor brevis muscle.

Question 307

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

During a posterior approach to the hip (Kocher-Langenbeck), preservation of the main blood supply to the adult femoral head is critical. To protect the ascending branch of the medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA), the surgeon should strictly avoid transecting the tendon of the:

. Piriformis
. Obturator internus
. Obturator externus
. Superior gemellus
. Inferior gemellus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Piriformis


Explanation

The ascending branch of the MFCA courses intimately along the inferior border of the obturator externus tendon. Protecting this tendon protects the critical blood supply to the femoral head.

Question 308

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A 6-year-old boy sustains a spiral midshaft femur fracture. He is managed with a spica cast. Two years later, his parents are concerned about a leg length discrepancy. Which of the following is the most expected outcome regarding limb length after this injury?

. The fractured femur will be 1 to 2 cm shorter than the uninjured side
. The fractured femur will be 1 to 2 cm longer than the uninjured side
. The uninjured femur will undergo compensatory overgrowth
. There will be a 3 to 4 cm overgrowth of the fractured femur
. Leg lengths will remain perfectly equal without any overgrowth

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The fractured femur will be 1 to 2 cm shorter than the uninjured side


Explanation

Children between 2 and 10 years of age typically experience an overgrowth phenomenon following a femur fracture, usually resulting in 1 to 2 cm of overgrowth of the fractured limb within the first 2 years.

Question 309

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

Which anatomic structure is most frequently implicated in blocking the successful closed reduction of an acute posterior hip dislocation?

. Iliopsoas tendon
. Gluteus maximus muscle
. Rectus femoris tendon
. Buttonholing through the posterior capsule or piriformis
. Ligamentum teres

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Iliopsoas tendon


Explanation

Irreducible posterior hip dislocations are most commonly caused by the femoral head 'buttonholing' through the posterior hip capsule, the piriformis, or the short external rotators. An open reduction (usually via a posterior approach) is required to extricate the head.

Question 310

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A healthy, independent 70-year-old woman sustains a displaced femoral neck fracture. She is an avid golfer and walks two miles daily. Comparing total hip arthroplasty (THA) to bipolar hemiarthroplasty for this specific patient, THA is associated with which of the following?

. Higher dislocation rate and lower reoperation rate
. Lower dislocation rate and lower reoperation rate
. Higher dislocation rate and higher reoperation rate
. Lower dislocation rate and higher reoperation rate
. Equivalent dislocation and reoperation rates

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Higher dislocation rate and lower reoperation rate


Explanation

In active, independent elderly patients with displaced femoral neck fractures, THA provides superior functional outcomes and lower long-term reoperation rates compared to hemiarthroplasty. However, THA does carry a higher immediate postoperative risk of dislocation.

Question 311

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A 33-year-old man undergoes a successful closed reduction of a traumatic posterior hip dislocation. The post-reduction CT scan demonstrates a congruent hip joint without intra-articular step-off, but reveals a 2 mm osteochondral fragment in the inferior, dependent aspect of the joint. The patient has a full, unrestricted range of motion. What is the most appropriate management?

. Immediate open arthrotomy via a posterior approach for fragment excision
. Immediate arthroscopic fragment excision
. Observation and conservative management with progressive weight-bearing
. Skeletal traction for 6 weeks
. Spica casting for 4 weeks

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Immediate open arthrotomy via a posterior approach for fragment excision


Explanation

Small, non-weight-bearing, dependent osteochondral fragments (<2-3 mm) that do not block motion and occur in the setting of a congruent joint can safely be observed. Operative intervention is indicated for large fragments, incarcerated fragments causing a noncongruent joint, or mechanical blocks to motion.

Question 312

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

During a posterior approach to the hip for a displaced femoral neck fracture, care must be taken to protect the primary blood supply to the femoral head. Which artery provides the majority of the blood supply to the adult femoral head?

. Inferior gluteal artery
. Lateral femoral circumflex artery
. Obturator artery
. Medial femoral circumflex artery
. Superior gluteal artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Inferior gluteal artery


Explanation

The medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA), specifically its lateral epiphyseal branches, provides the predominant blood supply to the adult femoral head. It courses posterior to the obturator externus and anterior to the short external rotators.

Question 313

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A healthy, community-ambulating 70-year-old woman sustains a displaced femoral neck fracture. When comparing total hip arthroplasty (THA) to bipolar hemiarthroplasty for her definitive treatment, THA is associated with:

. Lower risk of postoperative dislocation
. Decreased operative time and blood loss
. Lower incidence of acetabular wear and lower reoperation rates
. Higher rate of deep infection
. Decreased functional outcome scores at 5 years

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lower risk of postoperative dislocation


Explanation

In active elderly patients with displaced femoral neck fractures, THA provides better long-term functional outcomes and lower reoperation rates (due to eliminating acetabular wear) compared to hemiarthroplasty. However, THA does carry a higher risk of postoperative dislocation.

Question 314

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A highly active 68-year-old male presents with a displaced femoral neck fracture. He is medically optimized and a decision is made between total hip arthroplasty (THA) and hemiarthroplasty. According to current literature, which of the following is true regarding THA compared to hemiarthroplasty in this patient population?

. THA is associated with a higher dislocation rate.
. THA has a higher long-term revision rate.
. Hemiarthroplasty yields superior Harris Hip Scores.
. Hemiarthroplasty is associated with lower mortality at 30 days.
. THA results in significantly faster surgical times.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. THA is associated with a higher dislocation rate.


Explanation

In active, healthy older patients, THA for displaced femoral neck fractures provides better functional outcomes and lower revision rates than hemiarthroplasty. However, it is consistently associated with a higher risk of postoperative dislocation.

Question 315

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A 55-year-old male with a ceramic-on-ceramic total hip arthroplasty complains of a loud, high-pitched squeaking noise with ambulation. Which of the following factors is most strongly associated with this complication?

. High patient BMI
. Vertical acetabular cup placement (excessive inclination)
. Retroverted femoral stem
. Use of a short neck offset
. Elevated serum cobalt levels

Correct Answer & Explanation

. High patient BMI


Explanation

Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic THA is highly associated with edge loading. This most commonly results from component malposition, specifically increased acetabular cup inclination (a steep cup) or extremes of version.

Question 316

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

When comparing total hip arthroplasty (THA) to hemiarthroplasty for the treatment of a displaced femoral neck fracture in an active, independent 72-year-old woman, which of the following statements is most accurate?

. Hemiarthroplasty is associated with a lower dislocation rate but a higher long-term reoperation rate than THA.
. THA is associated with a lower dislocation rate and a lower reoperation rate.
. Hemiarthroplasty provides superior long-term functional hip scores compared to THA.
. THA is associated with a significantly higher 1-year mortality rate.
. There is no difference in the reoperation rate between the two procedures at 10 years.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hemiarthroplasty is associated with a lower dislocation rate but a higher long-term reoperation rate than THA.


Explanation

In functionally active elderly patients, THA yields better functional outcomes and lower reoperation rates (mainly due to avoidance of acetabular wear). However, THA carries a historically higher risk of postoperative dislocation compared to hemiarthroplasty.

Question 317

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

An 81-year-old nursing home resident with severe Parkinson's disease sustains a displaced femoral neck fracture. Which of the following surgical options minimizes her risk of postoperative instability while addressing the fracture?

. Unipolar hemiarthroplasty via a posterior approach
. Standard total hip arthroplasty via a posterior approach
. Cemented hemiarthroplasty or THA with a dual mobility articulation
. In situ fixation with cannulated screws
. Sliding hip screw fixation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Unipolar hemiarthroplasty via a posterior approach


Explanation

Patients with neuromuscular disorders such as Parkinson's disease are at an exceptionally high risk for postoperative dislocation. Utilizing a larger head size via hemiarthroplasty or a dual mobility THA component significantly mitigates this risk.

Question 318

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A 65-year-old woman undergoes conversion of a failed ORIF of a femoral neck fracture to a total hip arthroplasty. Compared to primary THA for osteoarthritis, this conversion procedure is associated with:

. Similar operative times and clinical outcomes
. A higher risk of postoperative dislocation, infection, and periprosthetic fracture
. A lower risk of femoral stem loosening due to retained hardware tracks
. Decreased intraoperative blood loss
. A lower rate of heterotopic ossification

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Similar operative times and clinical outcomes


Explanation

Conversion THA following failed femoral neck fracture fixation is technically demanding and carries higher complication rates, including increased risks of dislocation, deep infection, intraoperative fracture, and increased blood loss, behaving more like a revision THA.

Question 319

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A 77-year-old woman undergoes total hip arthroplasty for a displaced femoral neck fracture. Which of the following surgical approaches, if performed without meticulous soft-tissue repair, is associated with the highest risk of postoperative dislocation?

. Direct anterior approach
. Anterolateral approach (Watson-Jones)
. Direct lateral approach (Hardinge)
. Posterior approach (Moore)
. Trochanteric osteotomy approach

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Direct anterior approach


Explanation

The standard posterior approach, especially without a robust repair of the capsule and short external rotators, carries the highest historic risk of posterior dislocation, particularly in the femoral neck fracture population where soft tissues are lax.

Question 320

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A patient undergoes a posterior approach total hip arthroplasty. Postoperatively, the patient experiences recurrent anterior dislocations. Which of the following component malpositions is most likely responsible?

. Excessive acetabular anteversion
. Inadequate acetabular abduction
. Excessive femoral retroversion
. Inadequate femoral offset
. Excessive acetabular retroversion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Excessive acetabular anteversion


Explanation

Anterior hip dislocations after THA are typically caused by excessive combined anteversion, which includes excessive acetabular anteversion or excessive femoral anteversion. Excessive retroversion typically predisposes a patient to posterior dislocation.