This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA). Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 281
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A posterior approach to the hip is performed. To protect the main blood supply to the adult femoral head, careful handling of which vessel is required, and where does it course?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Medial femoral circumflex artery running posterior to the obturator externus
Explanation
The medial femoral circumflex artery provides the primary blood supply to the adult femoral head. It courses posterior to the obturator externus and anterior to the triceps coxae/quadratus femoris.
Question 282
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
When performing a posterior approach to the knee, the tibial nerve is identified in the popliteal fossa. Which of the following correctly describes its position relative to the popliteal artery and vein?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lateral and deep
Explanation
In the popliteal fossa, the sequence of structures from superficial (posterior) to deep (anterior) is nerve, vein, artery. The tibial nerve is lateral to the vessels proximally and crosses to medial distally.
Question 283
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
The deep branch of the medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA) provides the primary blood supply to the femoral head. Prior to piercing the hip capsule, it courses posteriorly between which two muscles?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Quadratus femoris and obturator externus
Explanation
The deep branch of the MFCA runs anterior to the quadratus femoris but posterior to the obturator externus. It then travels superiorly along the posterior capsule to supply the femoral head, making it vulnerable during posterior approaches.
Question 284
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
The direct lateral (Hardinge) approach to the hip involves splitting the gluteus medius. To avoid denervating the anterior portion of the gluteus medius, the proximal split should not extend beyond what distance from the tip of the greater trochanter?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 5 cm
Explanation
The superior gluteal nerve innervates the gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, and tensor fasciae latae. Its main trunk courses approximately 5 cm proximal to the tip of the greater trochanter, marking the safe limit for proximal dissection.
Question 285
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
To preserve the primary blood supply to the adult femoral head during a posterior approach to the hip, which of the following structures must be carefully protected as it defines the upper limit of the deep dissection?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Quadratus femoris
Explanation
The medial circumflex femoral artery provides the primary blood supply to the adult femoral head. It courses posteriorly and is protected by the intact obturator externus muscle, making it a critical landmark to preserve during a posterior approach.
Question 286
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
During a posterior approach to the knee, the surgeon dissects through the popliteal fossa. From superficial to deep (posterior to anterior), what is the correct order of the major neurovascular structures encountered?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Tibial nerve, Popliteal vein, Popliteal artery
Explanation
In the popliteal fossa, from superficial (posterior skin) to deep (anterior/closest to the bone capsule), the structures are arranged strictly as Tibial nerve, Popliteal vein, and Popliteal artery. This makes the artery the most difficult to repair if injured.
Question 287
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A 4-year-old boy sustains a nondisplaced proximal tibial metaphyseal fracture that is treated successfully in a long leg cast for 4 weeks. One year later, the parents bring him to the clinic concerned about a deformity in the injured leg. What is the most likely deformity and its anticipated natural history?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Valgus deformity (Cozen's phenomenon) that typically remodels and resolves spontaneously
Explanation
Cozen's phenomenon is a valgus overgrowth deformity that occurs after proximal tibial metaphyseal fractures in children. It typically peaks at 12 to 18 months post-injury and generally remodels spontaneously over 2 to 3 years.
Question 288
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A 48-year-old active man complains of a loud, high-pitched squeaking noise coming from his right hip, particularly when bending to tie his shoes. He underwent an uncomplicated ceramic-on-ceramic total hip arthroplasty 2 years ago. Radiographs demonstrate a well-fixed stem and a cup with 65 degrees of inclination. What is the most likely cause of this phenomenon?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Edge loading due to component malposition
Explanation
Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic THA is highly associated with edge loading, often due to a steeply inclined or excessively anteverted cup. This causes microseparation and abnormal wear patterns.
Question 289
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A 45-year-old active man presents with a high-pitched squeaking noise from his hip 3 years after a cementless primary THA with a ceramic-on-ceramic bearing. The noise occurs primarily during deep flexion activities. Which of the following component positional factors most strongly correlates with this phenomenon?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Edge loading from excessive cup inclination
Explanation
Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic THA is heavily associated with edge loading, which disrupts the normal fluid lubrication film between the bearings. This microseparation and edge loading typically results from acetabular cup malposition, particularly excessive inclination or version.
Question 290
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
An 81-year-old man falls and sustains a periprosthetic femur fracture around his cemented THA.
Radiographs reveal a fracture occurring around a loose femoral stem, but with adequate surrounding proximal bone stock. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Revision to a longer fully porous-coated or fluted tapered stem
Explanation
A fracture around a loose femoral stem with adequate remaining bone stock is classified as a Vancouver type B2 periprosthetic fracture. The standard of care is revision of the loose component to a long-stem prosthesis that bypasses the fracture by at least two cortical diameters.
Question 291
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
During trialing in a primary THA via a posterior approach, the surgeon notes the leg lengths are perfectly equal to the contralateral side, but the hip easily dislocates in adduction and internal rotation. To increase stability via soft tissue tensioning without altering the leg length, which of the following component changes should be made?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Use a high-offset femoral stem option
Explanation
A high-offset femoral stem increases the horizontal distance from the center of rotation to the femoral shaft, tightening the abductors and improving stability. It accomplishes this strictly on the horizontal axis without increasing vertical leg length, unlike substituting a longer femoral head.
Question 292
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A 70-year-old man undergoes revision THA for recurrent posterior dislocations. During the procedure, the surgeon notes that the existing acetabular component is in neutral version. To minimize future posterior instability, the surgeon should reposition the cup to achieve which target orientation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 15 degrees of anteversion and 40 degrees of abduction
Explanation
Lewinnek's 'safe zone' for acetabular cup placement to minimize the risk of dislocation is historically defined as 15 degrees (+/- 10 degrees) of anteversion and 40 degrees (+/- 10 degrees) of abduction. Retroversion or inadequate anteversion significantly increases the risk of posterior dislocation.
Question 293
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A 60-year-old woman complains of new-onset, sharp groin pain with active hip flexion, such as getting into a car, 6 months after an uncomplicated THA. Radiographs show the acetabular cup is retroverted and prominent anteriorly. What is the most appropriate initial management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Corticosteroid injection into the iliopsoas bursa
Explanation
The clinical presentation is highly consistent with iliopsoas impingement secondary to a prominent anterior acetabular rim. Initial management is nonoperative, consisting of physical therapy and a diagnostic/therapeutic corticosteroid injection into the iliopsoas bursa.
Question 294
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
When converting a standard offset femoral stem to a high offset femoral stem of the exact same neck angle during total hip arthroplasty, what is the expected biomechanical effect on the hip joint?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Increased leg length and decreased joint reaction force
Explanation
Increasing femoral offset laterally translates the femur without changing the vertical height (leg length). This effectively increases the abductor moment arm, which subsequently decreases the overall joint reaction force across the hip.
Question 295
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
During preoperative templating for a primary THA, the surgeon identifies a significant leg length discrepancy, with the operative side being 2 cm shorter. To lengthen the leg without excessively increasing the femoral offset, which intraoperative adjustment should be made?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Use a stem with a lower neck-shaft angle (more varus)
Explanation
A high offset stem (lower neck-shaft angle/more varus) increases offset with minimal effect on leg length. Conversely, a standard offset stem (higher neck-shaft angle/more valgus) gains more vertical length for every unit of offset added.
Question 296
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A 45-year-old man undergoes total hip arthroplasty using a ceramic-on-ceramic bearing. Three years later, he complains of a reproducible squeaking noise during deep flexion. Which of the following biomechanical factors is most strongly associated with this phenomenon?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Stripe wear from edge loading due to component malposition
Explanation
Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic THA is heavily associated with edge loading, often caused by acetabular component malposition. This leads to stripe wear and altered fluid lubrication dynamics.
Question 297
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
During preoperative templating for a total hip arthroplasty, the surgeon plans to use a high-offset femoral stem. Compared to a standard-offset stem, what is the primary biomechanical advantage of increasing femoral offset?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Increases the tension and mechanical advantage of the abductors
Explanation
Increasing femoral offset extends the abductor moment arm, which improves the mechanical advantage of the abductor musculature. This reduces the required muscle force and decreases the overall joint reaction force.
Question 298
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
Following a primary THA using a posterior approach, a patient exhibits foot drop and an inability to actively dorsiflex the ankle. Eversion of the foot is also weak, but ankle inversion is normal. Which branch of the sciatic nerve is most likely injured, and what is its most common mechanism of injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Peroneal division; excessive traction
Explanation
The peroneal division of the sciatic nerve is more susceptible to injury during THA due to its lateral position and tighter tethering at the fibular head. It is most commonly injured by excessive traction or stretching during the procedure.
Question 299
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A 68-year-old woman experiences her third posterior dislocation of her THA within 6 months. Radiographs demonstrate a well-fixed acetabular component with 55 degrees of abduction and 0 degrees of anteversion. The femoral stem is well-fixed with 15 degrees of anteversion. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Revision of the acetabular component to decrease abduction and increase anteversion
Explanation
The acetabular component is malpositioned with inadequate anteversion (retroverted) and excessive abduction, predisposing to posterior dislocation. Revision of the shell to the safe zone (approx 40 degrees abduction and 15-20 degrees anteversion) is indicated.
Question 300
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A patient has recurrent posterior dislocations post-THA. Radiographs demonstrate that the acetabular component is retroverted, while the femoral stem is well-fixed with normal anteversion. What is the best definitive treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Acetabular component revision
Explanation
When recurrent dislocation is caused by component malposition (such as a retroverted cup), the primary treatment is revision of the malpositioned component to restore proper biomechanics. Constrained liners should be reserved for cases of abductor deficiency or cognitive dysfunction.
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