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Question 281

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A posterior approach to the hip is performed. To protect the main blood supply to the adult femoral head, careful handling of which vessel is required, and where does it course?

. Lateral femoral circumflex artery running anterior to the neck
. Medial femoral circumflex artery running posterior to the obturator externus
. Medial femoral circumflex artery running superior to the piriformis
. Inferior gluteal artery running anterior to the quadratus femoris
. Artery of the ligamentum teres running inferiorly

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medial femoral circumflex artery running posterior to the obturator externus


Explanation

The medial femoral circumflex artery provides the primary blood supply to the adult femoral head. It courses posterior to the obturator externus and anterior to the triceps coxae/quadratus femoris.

Question 282

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

When performing a posterior approach to the knee, the tibial nerve is identified in the popliteal fossa. Which of the following correctly describes its position relative to the popliteal artery and vein?

. Medial and deep
. Lateral and superficial
. Lateral and deep
. Medial and superficial
. Directly anterior

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral and deep


Explanation

In the popliteal fossa, the sequence of structures from superficial (posterior) to deep (anterior) is nerve, vein, artery. The tibial nerve is lateral to the vessels proximally and crosses to medial distally.

Question 283

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

The deep branch of the medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA) provides the primary blood supply to the femoral head. Prior to piercing the hip capsule, it courses posteriorly between which two muscles?

. Piriformis and superior gemellus
. Superior gemellus and obturator internus
. Obturator internus and inferior gemellus
. Inferior gemellus and quadratus femoris
. Quadratus femoris and obturator externus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Quadratus femoris and obturator externus


Explanation

The deep branch of the MFCA runs anterior to the quadratus femoris but posterior to the obturator externus. It then travels superiorly along the posterior capsule to supply the femoral head, making it vulnerable during posterior approaches.

Question 284

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

The direct lateral (Hardinge) approach to the hip involves splitting the gluteus medius. To avoid denervating the anterior portion of the gluteus medius, the proximal split should not extend beyond what distance from the tip of the greater trochanter?

. 1 cm
. 3 cm
. 5 cm
. 8 cm
. 10 cm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 5 cm


Explanation

The superior gluteal nerve innervates the gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, and tensor fasciae latae. Its main trunk courses approximately 5 cm proximal to the tip of the greater trochanter, marking the safe limit for proximal dissection.

Question 285

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

To preserve the primary blood supply to the adult femoral head during a posterior approach to the hip, which of the following structures must be carefully protected as it defines the upper limit of the deep dissection?

. Piriformis tendon
. Quadratus femoris
. Obturator externus
. Superior gemellus
. Gluteus minimus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Quadratus femoris


Explanation

The medial circumflex femoral artery provides the primary blood supply to the adult femoral head. It courses posteriorly and is protected by the intact obturator externus muscle, making it a critical landmark to preserve during a posterior approach.

Question 286

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

During a posterior approach to the knee, the surgeon dissects through the popliteal fossa. From superficial to deep (posterior to anterior), what is the correct order of the major neurovascular structures encountered?

. Popliteal artery, Popliteal vein, Tibial nerve
. Tibial nerve, Popliteal vein, Popliteal artery
. Popliteal vein, Tibial nerve, Popliteal artery
. Tibial nerve, Popliteal artery, Popliteal vein
. Popliteal artery, Tibial nerve, Popliteal vein

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tibial nerve, Popliteal vein, Popliteal artery


Explanation

In the popliteal fossa, from superficial (posterior skin) to deep (anterior/closest to the bone capsule), the structures are arranged strictly as Tibial nerve, Popliteal vein, and Popliteal artery. This makes the artery the most difficult to repair if injured.

Question 287

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A 4-year-old boy sustains a nondisplaced proximal tibial metaphyseal fracture that is treated successfully in a long leg cast for 4 weeks. One year later, the parents bring him to the clinic concerned about a deformity in the injured leg. What is the most likely deformity and its anticipated natural history?

. Progressive varus deformity requiring a corrective osteotomy
. Valgus deformity (Cozen's phenomenon) that typically remodels and resolves spontaneously
. Valgus deformity requiring a corrective osteotomy within 6 months
. Recurvatum deformity that requires immediate bracing
. Leg length discrepancy requiring epiphysiodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Valgus deformity (Cozen's phenomenon) that typically remodels and resolves spontaneously


Explanation

Cozen's phenomenon is a valgus overgrowth deformity that occurs after proximal tibial metaphyseal fractures in children. It typically peaks at 12 to 18 months post-injury and generally remodels spontaneously over 2 to 3 years.

Question 288

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A 48-year-old active man complains of a loud, high-pitched squeaking noise coming from his right hip, particularly when bending to tie his shoes. He underwent an uncomplicated ceramic-on-ceramic total hip arthroplasty 2 years ago. Radiographs demonstrate a well-fixed stem and a cup with 65 degrees of inclination. What is the most likely cause of this phenomenon?

. Third-body wear from retained cement
. Edge loading due to component malposition
. Trunnion corrosion
. Infection
. Impingement of the femoral neck on the acetabular rim

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Edge loading due to component malposition


Explanation

Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic THA is highly associated with edge loading, often due to a steeply inclined or excessively anteverted cup. This causes microseparation and abnormal wear patterns.

Question 289

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A 45-year-old active man presents with a high-pitched squeaking noise from his hip 3 years after a cementless primary THA with a ceramic-on-ceramic bearing. The noise occurs primarily during deep flexion activities. Which of the following component positional factors most strongly correlates with this phenomenon?

. Acetabular component retroversion
. Acetabular component anteversion greater than 20 degrees
. Femoral stem varus positioning
. Edge loading from excessive cup inclination
. Impingement of the greater trochanter on the ilium

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Edge loading from excessive cup inclination


Explanation

Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic THA is heavily associated with edge loading, which disrupts the normal fluid lubrication film between the bearings. This microseparation and edge loading typically results from acetabular cup malposition, particularly excessive inclination or version.

Question 290

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

An 81-year-old man falls and sustains a periprosthetic femur fracture around his cemented THA.

Radiographs reveal a fracture occurring around a loose femoral stem, but with adequate surrounding proximal bone stock. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

. Open reduction and internal fixation with a laterally applied locking plate
. Revision to a longer fully porous-coated or fluted tapered stem
. Revision to a proximal femoral replacement (tumor prosthesis)
. Nonoperative management with protected weight-bearing and a spica cast
. Application of cortical strut allografts with cerclage cables alone

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Revision to a longer fully porous-coated or fluted tapered stem


Explanation

A fracture around a loose femoral stem with adequate remaining bone stock is classified as a Vancouver type B2 periprosthetic fracture. The standard of care is revision of the loose component to a long-stem prosthesis that bypasses the fracture by at least two cortical diameters.

Question 291

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

During trialing in a primary THA via a posterior approach, the surgeon notes the leg lengths are perfectly equal to the contralateral side, but the hip easily dislocates in adduction and internal rotation. To increase stability via soft tissue tensioning without altering the leg length, which of the following component changes should be made?

. Use a femoral head with a longer neck length (+4 to +8 mm)
. Use a high-offset femoral stem option
. Increase the neck-shaft angle of the femoral stem (valgus stem)
. Advance the femoral stem deeper into the medullary canal
. Decrease the anteversion of the acetabular component

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Use a high-offset femoral stem option


Explanation

A high-offset femoral stem increases the horizontal distance from the center of rotation to the femoral shaft, tightening the abductors and improving stability. It accomplishes this strictly on the horizontal axis without increasing vertical leg length, unlike substituting a longer femoral head.

Question 292

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A 70-year-old man undergoes revision THA for recurrent posterior dislocations. During the procedure, the surgeon notes that the existing acetabular component is in neutral version. To minimize future posterior instability, the surgeon should reposition the cup to achieve which target orientation?

. 15 degrees of anteversion and 40 degrees of abduction
. 0 degrees of anteversion and 30 degrees of abduction
. 15 degrees of retroversion and 45 degrees of abduction
. 30 degrees of anteversion and 60 degrees of abduction
. 5 degrees of anteversion and 20 degrees of abduction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 15 degrees of anteversion and 40 degrees of abduction


Explanation

Lewinnek's 'safe zone' for acetabular cup placement to minimize the risk of dislocation is historically defined as 15 degrees (+/- 10 degrees) of anteversion and 40 degrees (+/- 10 degrees) of abduction. Retroversion or inadequate anteversion significantly increases the risk of posterior dislocation.

Question 293

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A 60-year-old woman complains of new-onset, sharp groin pain with active hip flexion, such as getting into a car, 6 months after an uncomplicated THA. Radiographs show the acetabular cup is retroverted and prominent anteriorly. What is the most appropriate initial management?

. Revision of the acetabular component
. Corticosteroid injection into the iliopsoas bursa
. Arthroscopic release of the iliopsoas tendon
. Open release of the rectus femoris
. Trochanteric bursectomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Corticosteroid injection into the iliopsoas bursa


Explanation

The clinical presentation is highly consistent with iliopsoas impingement secondary to a prominent anterior acetabular rim. Initial management is nonoperative, consisting of physical therapy and a diagnostic/therapeutic corticosteroid injection into the iliopsoas bursa.

Question 294

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

When converting a standard offset femoral stem to a high offset femoral stem of the exact same neck angle during total hip arthroplasty, what is the expected biomechanical effect on the hip joint?

. Increased leg length and increased abductor tension
. Decreased leg length and increased joint reaction force
. Unchanged leg length and decreased joint reaction force
. Increased leg length and decreased joint reaction force
. Unchanged leg length and increased joint reaction force

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increased leg length and decreased joint reaction force


Explanation

Increasing femoral offset laterally translates the femur without changing the vertical height (leg length). This effectively increases the abductor moment arm, which subsequently decreases the overall joint reaction force across the hip.

Question 295

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

During preoperative templating for a primary THA, the surgeon identifies a significant leg length discrepancy, with the operative side being 2 cm shorter. To lengthen the leg without excessively increasing the femoral offset, which intraoperative adjustment should be made?

. Use a femoral head with a longer neck
. Use a stem with a higher neck-shaft angle (more valgus)
. Use a stem with a lower neck-shaft angle (more varus)
. Deepen the acetabular component medially
. Increase the anteversion of the acetabular cup

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Use a stem with a lower neck-shaft angle (more varus)


Explanation

A high offset stem (lower neck-shaft angle/more varus) increases offset with minimal effect on leg length. Conversely, a standard offset stem (higher neck-shaft angle/more valgus) gains more vertical length for every unit of offset added.

Question 296

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A 45-year-old man undergoes total hip arthroplasty using a ceramic-on-ceramic bearing. Three years later, he complains of a reproducible squeaking noise during deep flexion. Which of the following biomechanical factors is most strongly associated with this phenomenon?

. Loss of abductor tension
. Stripe wear from edge loading due to component malposition
. Corrosion at the head-neck junction
. Third-body wear from retained cement debris
. Galvanic corrosion at the modular neck

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Stripe wear from edge loading due to component malposition


Explanation

Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic THA is heavily associated with edge loading, often caused by acetabular component malposition. This leads to stripe wear and altered fluid lubrication dynamics.

Question 297

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

During preoperative templating for a total hip arthroplasty, the surgeon plans to use a high-offset femoral stem. Compared to a standard-offset stem, what is the primary biomechanical advantage of increasing femoral offset?

. Increases the joint reaction force
. Decreases the abductor moment arm
. Increases the tension and mechanical advantage of the abductors
. Decreases the length of the lower extremity
. Increases the risk of bony impingement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increases the tension and mechanical advantage of the abductors


Explanation

Increasing femoral offset extends the abductor moment arm, which improves the mechanical advantage of the abductor musculature. This reduces the required muscle force and decreases the overall joint reaction force.

Question 298

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

Following a primary THA using a posterior approach, a patient exhibits foot drop and an inability to actively dorsiflex the ankle. Eversion of the foot is also weak, but ankle inversion is normal. Which branch of the sciatic nerve is most likely injured, and what is its most common mechanism of injury?

. Tibial division; direct laceration
. Peroneal division; excessive traction
. Peroneal division; direct laceration
. Tibial division; thermal necrosis
. Tibial division; excessive traction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Peroneal division; excessive traction


Explanation

The peroneal division of the sciatic nerve is more susceptible to injury during THA due to its lateral position and tighter tethering at the fibular head. It is most commonly injured by excessive traction or stretching during the procedure.

Question 299

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)



A 68-year-old woman experiences her third posterior dislocation of her THA within 6 months. Radiographs demonstrate a well-fixed acetabular component with 55 degrees of abduction and 0 degrees of anteversion. The femoral stem is well-fixed with 15 degrees of anteversion. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

. Revision of the femoral component to increase anteversion
. Revision of the acetabular component to decrease abduction and increase anteversion
. Conversion to a bipolar hemiarthroplasty
. Trochanteric advancement
. Placement of a constrained acetabular liner without changing the shell

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Revision of the acetabular component to decrease abduction and increase anteversion


Explanation

The acetabular component is malpositioned with inadequate anteversion (retroverted) and excessive abduction, predisposing to posterior dislocation. Revision of the shell to the safe zone (approx 40 degrees abduction and 15-20 degrees anteversion) is indicated.

Question 300

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A patient has recurrent posterior dislocations post-THA. Radiographs demonstrate that the acetabular component is retroverted, while the femoral stem is well-fixed with normal anteversion. What is the best definitive treatment?

. Placement of a constrained liner
. Exchange to an elevated rim liner
. Acetabular component revision
. Femoral component revision
. Trochanteric advancement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Acetabular component revision


Explanation

When recurrent dislocation is caused by component malposition (such as a retroverted cup), the primary treatment is revision of the malpositioned component to restore proper biomechanics. Constrained liners should be reserved for cases of abductor deficiency or cognitive dysfunction.