This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 2. Trauma. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 10261
Topic: 2. Trauma
Which of the following statements most accurately describes the vascular supply to the scaphoid and its clinical implication in the setting of trauma?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Blood supply enters the distal pole and dorsal ridge via branches of the radial artery, supplying the proximal pole in a retrograde fashion.
Explanation
The scaphoid is predominantly supplied by the dorsal carpal branch of the radial artery, which enters at the dorsal ridge (distal to the waist) and supplies the proximal pole via retrograde intraosseous flow. This retrograde blood supply is why proximal pole fractures have a high rate of nonunion and avascular necrosis.
Question 10262
Topic: Pelvic & Acetabular Trauma
In a Young-Burgess Anteroposterior Compression II (APC II) pelvic ring injury, which of the following posterior ligamentous structures typically remains intact, distinguishing it from an APC III injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Sacrospinous ligament
Explanation
An APC II injury involves widening of the pubic symphysis (or vertical pubic rami fractures) and rupture of the anterior sacroiliac, sacrotuberous, and sacrospinous ligaments. The posterior sacroiliac ligaments remain intact, preventing vertical instability. An APC III injury involves complete disruption of both anterior and posterior SI ligaments, resulting in spinopelvic dissociation.
Question 10263
Topic: 2. Trauma
A 30-year-old male sustains a closed, high-energy tibial shaft fracture and complains of unremitting pain out of proportion to his injury. His blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg. Compartment pressures are measured. Which of the following values provides the most reliable threshold for diagnosing acute compartment syndrome and indicating urgent fasciotomy?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Delta P (Diastolic Blood Pressure minus compartment pressure) < 30 mmHg
Explanation
The most reliable indicator for acute compartment syndrome is the Delta P, calculated as the Diastolic Blood Pressure minus the absolute compartment pressure. A Delta P of less than 30 mmHg signifies inadequate tissue perfusion and is the standard threshold indicating the need for immediate fasciotomy.
Question 10264
Topic: 2. Trauma
In applying a locking compression plate (LCP) for a diaphyseal fracture, what is the primary biomechanical advantage compared to a conventional non-locking plate?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. It provides a rigid fixed-angle construct that does not require compression to the bone.
Explanation
Locking plates provide a fixed-angle construct, where stability relies on the threaded screw-plate interface rather than friction between the plate and the underlying bone. This preserves periosteal blood supply and avoids the need for perfect contouring of the plate to the bone surface.
Question 10265
Topic: 2. Trauma
A 24-year-old male sustains bilateral closed femoral shaft fractures. Thirty-six hours after admission, he develops confusion, a petechial rash over his axillae, and dyspnea. Which of the following is considered a 'major criterion' for the diagnosis of Fat Embolism Syndrome according to Gurd and Wilson's criteria?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Petechial rash
Explanation
According to Gurd and Wilson's criteria for Fat Embolism Syndrome, the three major criteria are respiratory insufficiency, cerebral involvement (neurologic signs), and a petechial rash. Tachycardia, fever, jaundice, renal changes, and sudden drops in hemoglobin or platelets are considered minor criteria.
Question 10266
Topic: 2. Trauma
A 28-year-old male polytrauma patient is intubated in the ICU after a motor vehicle accident. He has a comminuted tibia fracture. The nursing staff notes a tense calf. Which of the following criteria is the most reliable threshold for diagnosing acute compartment syndrome and proceeding with fasciotomy in this obtunded patient?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Diastolic blood pressure minus compartment pressure < 30 mmHg
Explanation
In obtunded or polytrauma patients where clinical examination is unreliable, the delta pressure is the most accurate diagnostic parameter for acute compartment syndrome. A delta pressure (Diastolic Blood Pressure - Compartment Pressure) of less than 30 mmHg is the accepted threshold indicating the need for emergent fasciotomy, as it accounts for the perfusion gradient better than an absolute pressure measurement.
Question 10267
Topic: Pelvic & Acetabular Trauma
According to the Young-Burgess classification system for pelvic ring fractures, an Anteroposterior Compression Type III (APC-III) injury is characterized by complete pelvic instability. This requires the disruption of the anterior ring as well as which of the following ligamentous structures?
An APC-III injury indicates complete dissociation of the hemipelvis from the sacrum. It is characterized by symphyseal diastasis (or anterior rami fractures) along with complete disruption of the pelvic floor (sacrotuberous and sacrospinous ligaments) and both the anterior and posterior sacroiliac ligaments, leading to complete rotational and vertical instability.
Question 10268
Topic: 2. Trauma
A 30-year-old male sustains a closed tibial shaft fracture. He complains of severe pain out of proportion to the injury. Which measurement best confirms the diagnosis of acute compartment syndrome?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Diastolic blood pressure minus compartment pressure < 30 mmHg
Explanation
The delta P (diastolic blood pressure minus compartment pressure) is the most reliable indicator of compartment syndrome. A delta P of less than 30 mmHg is considered diagnostic and warrants emergent fasciotomy.
Question 10269
Topic: Pelvic & Acetabular Trauma
A 25-year-old male is involved in a high-speed motor vehicle collision and sustains an APC-II pelvic ring injury. What is the primary anatomic structure disrupted that defines this specific injury pattern?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior sacroiliac ligaments
Explanation
An APC-II (Anteroposterior Compression II) pelvic fracture is characterized by widening of the pubic symphysis and disruption of the anterior sacroiliac ligaments, sacrotuberous, and sacrospinous ligaments. The posterior sacroiliac ligaments remain intact, maintaining vertical stability.
Question 10270
Topic: 2. Trauma
A 24-year-old male with bilateral femur fractures develops hypoxemia, altered mental status, and a petechial rash 48 hours after admission. Which of the following is considered a major criterion for Fat Embolism Syndrome according to Gurd and Wilson?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Petechial rash
Explanation
Gurd and Wilson's major criteria for Fat Embolism Syndrome include respiratory insufficiency, cerebral involvement (altered mental status), and a petechial rash. Tachycardia, fever, and thrombocytopenia are minor criteria.
Question 10271
Topic: 2. Trauma
A 24-year-old male sustains a closed femoral shaft fracture. Forty-eight hours post-admission, he develops sudden onset tachypnea, confusion, and a petechial rash over his axillae. Which of the following is the most definitive primary prevention strategy for this clinical syndrome?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Early surgical stabilization of the long bone fracture
Explanation
The patient is exhibiting classic Gurd's criteria for Fat Embolism Syndrome (FES). Early surgical stabilization of long bone fractures (typically within 24 hours) is the most proven and effective method for the primary prevention of FES.
Question 10272
Topic: 2. Trauma
- The flap outlined in Figure 58 is based on septocutaneous perforators from what artery?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Radial
Explanation
Question 10273
Topic: 2. Trauma
What defect in collagen synthesis is caused by a lack of vitamin C?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Impaired hydroxylation of proline
Explanation
Question 10274
Topic: 2. Trauma
While under a physician’s care, a 45-year-old man verbally abuses the staff and nurses who are attempting to carry out orders. A decision to discharge the patient is best carried out by
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Asking the legal staff to seek a court injunction
Explanation
Question 10275
Topic: 2. Trauma
A consecutive series of 50 patients is randomized to receive either treatment A or treatment B. At a 10-year follow up, patient satisfaction with treatment is measured. Which of the following statistical calculations will provide the most information regarding the magnitude of possible differences between the two groups of patients?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Meta-analysis
Explanation
Question 10276
Topic: 2. Trauma
A 19-year-old man sustains a complete spinal cord injury at the C7 level as a result of diving into a lake. He has a blood pressure of 90/50 mm Hg, a pulse of 60/min, and respirations of 20/min. These values most likely signify
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Spinal shock
Explanation
Question 10277
Topic: 2. Trauma
Figures 59a and 59b show the plain radiographs, and Figures 59c and 59d show the CT scan of a 77-year-old woman who has had pain in her back and both buttocks for the past 6 months. She reports that the pain radiates down her right thigh and leg when she is standing. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lumbar spinal stenosis
Explanation
Question 10278
Topic: 2. Trauma
A 65-year-old man has had “catching” in front of his knee since he had a total knee arthroplasty 9 months ago. Examination reveals a palpable and audible snap in the anterior aspect of the knee at about 40 degrees of flexion as the knee is being actively extended. A radiograph of the prosthetic knee will most likely show
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Patella alta
Explanation
Question 10279
Topic: 2. Trauma
Which of the following radiographic findings indicates that the injury to the great toe shown in Figures 60a and 60b should be reducible by closed manipulation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The sesamoids are separated
Explanation
Question 10280
Topic: 2. Trauma
Osteolysis, after total knee arthroplasty performed without cement, most often occurs in the
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Patella
Explanation
Test Yourself
Switch to an interactive, timed exam simulation to truly master this topic.