2. Trauma MCQs

A 24-year-old marathon runner is diagnosed with exertional compartment syndrome of the deep posterior compartment of the leg. Which nerve is located within this specific compartment?

The coracoclavicular (CC) ligaments provide the primary vertical stability to the acromioclavicular joint. Which of the following describes the anatomical position of the conoid ligament relative to the trapezoid ligament?

During an operative fixation of a scaphoid waist fracture using a volar approach, the surgeon must be careful to preserve the primary blood supply to the proximal pole. This blood supply enters the scaphoid primarily through which of the following areas?

Following a displaced femoral neck fracture in an adult, the principal blood supply to the femoral head is disrupted. Which of the following vessels provides the majority of the blood supply to the adult femoral head?

During reconstruction of an acromioclavicular joint separation, anatomic reduction of the coracoclavicular ligaments is desired. Which of the following statements accurately describes the anatomy of the conoid and trapezoid ligaments?

An overhead throwing athlete sustains a tear of the ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) of the elbow. The anterior bundle of the UCL is the primary restraint to valgus stress. Where does the anterior bundle insert on the ulna?

During open reduction and internal fixation of a severe medial malleolus fracture, the surgeon dissects posterior to the medial malleolus. In what order, from anterior to posterior, do the structures normally lie in this region?

An elderly patient sustains a displaced femoral neck fracture, risking avascular necrosis. The primary blood supply to the adult femoral head is derived from the lateral epiphyseal artery. This vessel is a terminal branch of which artery?

A patient develops compartment syndrome of the lower leg. The surgeon performs a dual-incision four-compartment fasciotomy. Which of the following nerves is located within the deep posterior compartment?

The scaphoid bone is highly susceptible to nonunion following a fracture due to its unique intraosseous blood supply. The major blood supply enters the scaphoid through its dorsal ridge and is a branch of which artery?

During arthroscopic meniscectomy, understanding the differences between the medial and lateral menisci is crucial to avoid complications. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of the lateral meniscus compared to the medial meniscus?

When placing an iliosacral screw into the S1 vertebral body for pelvic ring fixation, anterior misplacement of the screw out of the sacral ala places which nerve root at greatest risk of direct injury?

A 72-year-old female sustains a displaced femoral neck fracture. Which of the following arterial structures provides the primary blood supply to the adult femoral head and is most at risk of disruption in this injury?

A 45-year-old undergoes an anterolateral approach to the distal tibia for a pilon fracture. During deep dissection, which neurovascular bundle is at risk and must be carefully retracted medially along with the anterior compartment musculature?

A surgeon is utilizing a direct lateral approach to the fibula for an ORIF of a distal third shaft fracture. The superficial peroneal nerve is at risk as it exits the deep fascia to become subcutaneous. On average, at what distance proximal to the tip of the lateral malleolus does this nerve pierce the crural fascia?

A 30-year-old cyclist sustains a Type V acromioclavicular (AC) joint injury. During open reduction and reconstruction, the surgeon focuses on restoring the primary restraint to superior clavicular translation.

Which ligament acts as this primary restraint?

A 40-year-old male is brought to the trauma bay after a high-speed skiing collision. His knee is grossly deformed with a prominent "dimple sign" over the medial joint line.

What does this specific clinical finding indicate regarding the injury?

A 21-year-old runner complains of bilateral anterolateral leg pain that reliably begins 15 minutes into a run and resolves 30 minutes after rest. Nonoperative measures have failed. What is the gold standard diagnostic test for this condition?

A 20-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher presents with medial elbow pain and decreased pitching velocity. The moving valgus stress test is positive. MRI confirms a full-thickness tear of the anterior bundle of the ulnar collateral ligament (UCL). During reconstruction, where must the graft be secured on the ulna to recreate the native anterior bundle insertion?

During anatomical reconstruction of the coracoclavicular (CC) ligaments for a high-grade acromioclavicular joint separation, proper graft placement requires knowledge of the native footprint. The conoid ligament footprint on the clavicle is located: