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Question 8701

Topic: Upper Extremity Trauma
A 28-year-old cyclist falls directly onto his shoulder point. Clinical exam shows a highly prominent clavicle. Radiographs reveal 150% superior displacement of the distal clavicle relative to the acromion. Which type of acromioclavicular (AC) joint separation has occurred and what is the standard primary recommendation?
. Type II; Nonoperative management
. Type III; Operative repair
. Type III; Nonoperative management
. Type V; Operative repair
. Type V; Nonoperative management

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Type V; Operative repair


Explanation

A Type V AC joint injury involves 100-300% superior displacement of the clavicle due to disruption of the AC ligaments, coracoclavicular ligaments, and the deltotrapezial fascia. Operative reconstruction is generally recommended for Type V injuries to restore mechanics.

Question 8702

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 19-year-old male is brought to the trauma bay after a rugby tackle. He complains of severe pain over the medial clavicle, dysphagia, and a sensation of choking. Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate diagnostic imaging step to guide management?

. Standard AP and lateral chest radiographs
. Serendipity view radiograph
. Ultrasound of the neck
. Computed tomography (CT) scan of the chest and clavicle
. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the brachial plexus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Computed tomography (CT) scan of the chest and clavicle


Explanation

The patient's dysphagia and choking suggest a posterior sternoclavicular dislocation, a medical emergency due to proximity to the trachea, esophagus, and great vessels. A CT scan is the gold standard to evaluate the dislocation direction and great vessel compromise.

Question 8703

Topic: 2. Trauma

During internal fixation of a diaphyseal femur fracture, a surgeon aims to maximize the pullout strength of a cortical screw. Which of the following alterations to screw design or insertion technique most effectively increases pullout strength in dense cortical bone?

. Decreasing the outer (major) diameter of the screw
. Increasing the inner (minor) diameter of the screw
. Decreasing the thread pitch
. Decreasing the length of screw engagement
. Tapping the hole with a tap larger than the screw's outer diameter

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Decreasing the thread pitch


Explanation

Screw pullout strength is directly proportional to the outer (major) diameter of the screw, the length of engagement in the bone, and the shear strength of the bone material. Decreasing the thread pitch increases the number of threads per unit of length, which increases the volume of bone caught between the threads, thereby increasing pullout strength. Increasing the minor diameter (core diameter) would decrease thread depth and thus decrease pullout strength. Tapping with a larger tap would ruin the bony thread interface.

Question 8704

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 9-year-old boy presents with a pathologic fracture of the proximal humerus after throwing a baseball. Radiographs show a centrally located, completely lytic, expansile lesion in the metaphysis of the proximal humerus with a 'fallen leaf' sign. No periosteal reaction is noted outside the fracture site. What is the most appropriate initial surgical management after the fracture has healed?

. Wide surgical resection and endoprosthetic reconstruction
. Curettage, burring, and structural bone grafting
. Aspiration and injection of methylprednisolone or bone marrow aspirate
. Sclerotherapy with polidocanol
. Prophylactic internal fixation with a locked plate

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Aspiration and injection of methylprednisolone or bone marrow aspirate


Explanation

The clinical and radiographic presentation (centrally located, metaphyseal lytic lesion with a fallen leaf sign) is classic for a unicameral (simple) bone cyst. Following fracture healing (which rarely obliterates the cyst completely in the proximal humerus), minimally invasive treatments such as aspiration and injection of corticosteroids or bone marrow aspirate are considered the first-line surgical management.

Question 8705

Topic: 2. Trauma

Fracture healing can occur via different biologic pathways depending on the mechanical environment. Which of the following clinical scenarios primarily utilizes intramembranous ossification rather than endochondral ossification?

. Healing of a midshaft femur fracture treated with a cast
. Callus formation in a clavicle fracture treated nonoperatively
. Distraction osteogenesis during limb lengthening
. Fracture healing in a tibial shaft treated with a reamed intramedullary nail
. Physeal growth in the distal femur of a child

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Distraction osteogenesis during limb lengthening


Explanation

Distraction osteogenesis (e.g., using an Ilizarov frame) primarily occurs via intramembranous ossification, a process where bone forms directly from mesenchymal stem cells without a cartilaginous intermediate. Endochondral ossification, which involves a cartilage model that is subsequently replaced by bone, is the primary mechanism of secondary fracture healing (callus formation) seen in nonoperative management or relative stability (intramedullary nailing). Longitudinal physeal growth also occurs via endochondral ossification.

Question 8706

Topic: 2. Trauma

During fracture fixation, the mechanical properties of the implants must be considered. The torsional strength (resistance to breaking upon insertion) of a cortical bone screw is most closely proportional to the cube of which of the following screw parameters?

. Outer diameter
. Thread pitch
. Root (inner) diameter
. Thread length
. Lead

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Root (inner) diameter


Explanation

A screw's torsional strength, or its resistance to fracture during torque, is proportional to the cube of its root (inner) diameter. In contrast, its pullout strength is related to the outer diameter and thread depth.

Question 8707

Topic: 2. Trauma

When preparing a diaphyseal femur fracture for intramedullary nailing, the surgeon reams the canal, allowing insertion of a larger diameter nail. If the radius of the chosen solid cylindrical nail is doubled, its bending rigidity (area moment of inertia) increases by what factor?

. 2
. 4
. 8
. 16
. 32

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 16


Explanation

The bending rigidity of a solid cylindrical intramedullary nail is proportional to its area moment of inertia, which scales with the radius to the fourth power (r^4). Therefore, doubling the radius increases the bending rigidity by a factor of 16 (2^4).

Question 8708

Topic: 2. Trauma

Which of the following fracture fixation methods most heavily relies on primary bone healing (intramembranous ossification) without an intermediate cartilaginous phase?

. Intramedullary nailing
. Bridge plating
. External fixation
. Cast immobilization
. Absolute rigid fixation with a lag screw and neutralization plate

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Absolute rigid fixation with a lag screw and neutralization plate


Explanation

Primary bone healing occurs only under conditions of absolute stability, such as lag screw fixation with a neutralization plate. This process bypasses callus formation and relies on cutting cones to directly cross the fracture gap.

Question 8709

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 22-year-old male sustains a proximal pole scaphoid fracture. Which of the following anatomical features best explains the high rate of avascular necrosis and nonunion in this specific region?

. The major blood supply enters via the volar-distal ridge.
. The major blood supply enters via the volar-proximal ridge.
. The major blood supply enters via the dorsal-distal ridge and flows proximally.
. The major blood supply enters via the dorsal-proximal ridge and flows distally.
. The proximal pole lacks any intraosseous vascular anastomoses.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The major blood supply enters via the dorsal-distal ridge and flows proximally.


Explanation

The primary blood supply to the scaphoid is from the radial artery, entering via the dorsal ridge distally and coursing proximally in a retrograde fashion. Proximal pole fractures disrupt this flow, creating a high risk of avascular necrosis.

Question 8710

Topic: Upper Extremity Trauma

A 19-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher requires ulnar collateral ligament reconstruction. The primary restraint to valgus stress at 30 to 90 degrees of elbow flexion is the anterior bundle. Where does this bundle anatomically originate?

. Posterior aspect of the medial epicondyle
. Anterior undersurface of the medial epicondyle
. Coronoid process
. Sublime tubercle
. Olecranon process

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior undersurface of the medial epicondyle


Explanation

The anterior bundle of the medial ulnar collateral ligament originates from the anterior undersurface of the medial epicondyle. It inserts distally on the sublime tubercle of the coronoid process.

Question 8711

Topic: Lower Extremity Trauma

During a posterolateral approach to the tibial plateau, an osteotomy of the fibular head may be performed for extended access. Which of the following nerves is at greatest risk during this maneuver, and where is it typically located?

. Deep peroneal nerve; anterior to the interosseous membrane
. Superficial peroneal nerve; lateral compartment of the leg
. Common peroneal nerve; winding around the fibular neck
. Tibial nerve; deep to the soleus muscle
. Sural nerve; posterior to the lateral malleolus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Common peroneal nerve; winding around the fibular neck


Explanation

The common peroneal nerve wraps around the fibular neck just distal to the fibular head. It is at high risk of iatrogenic injury during a fibular head osteotomy or retractor placement in this area.

Question 8712

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 22-year-old runner requires a four-compartment fasciotomy for acute exertional compartment syndrome. Which of the following structures is entirely contained within the deep posterior compartment of the lower leg?

. Peroneus brevis
. Sural nerve
. Tibial nerve
. Deep peroneal nerve
. Superficial peroneal nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Deep peroneal nerve


Explanation

The deep posterior compartment of the leg contains the tibialis posterior, flexor digitorum longus, flexor hallucis longus, posterior tibial artery, and the tibial nerve. The deep peroneal nerve runs in the anterior compartment.

Question 8713

Topic: 2. Trauma

The primary blood supply to the proximal pole of the scaphoid is derived from vessels entering at which of the following locations?

. Volar tubercle
. Dorsal ridge
. Scapholunate interosseous ligament
. Volar groove
. Proximal articular surface

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Dorsal ridge


Explanation

The scaphoid receives its primary blood supply (70-80%) from branches of the radial artery that enter the dorsal ridge and supply the proximal pole via retrograde flow. Vessels entering the volar tubercle supply only the distal 20-30%, making proximal pole fractures highly susceptible to nonunion and avascular necrosis.

Question 8714

Topic: 2. Trauma

In the surgical treatment of chronic exertional compartment syndrome, the lateral compartment of the leg is released. The superficial peroneal nerve exits the deep crural fascia to become subcutaneous at approximately what location?

. 5 cm proximal to the fibular head
. At the junction of the proximal and middle thirds of the fibula
. At the junction of the middle and distal thirds of the fibula
. 2 cm proximal to the lateral malleolus
. Anterior to the lateral malleolus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. At the junction of the middle and distal thirds of the fibula


Explanation

The superficial peroneal nerve typically pierces the deep crural fascia to become subcutaneous at the junction of the middle and distal thirds of the leg, roughly 10-12 cm proximal to the lateral malleolus. Surgeons must be extremely cautious at this exit point during lateral compartment fasciotomies.

Question 8715

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 21-year-old soccer player injures his knee. Radiographs reveal a small avulsion fracture of the lateral tibial plateau, known as a Segond fracture. This pathognomonic sign represents an avulsion of which anatomical structure?

. Biceps femoris tendon
. Iliotibial band
. Lateral collateral ligament
. Anterolateral ligament
. Popliteofibular ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterolateral ligament


Explanation

The Segond fracture is a cortical avulsion fracture off the lateral tibial plateau, representing an avulsion of the anterolateral ligament (ALL) and lateral capsular structures. It is highly correlated with anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tears.

Question 8716

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 34-year-old male sustains a distal third humeral shaft fracture (Holstein-Lewis) and presents with a wrist drop. The nerve at risk pierces the lateral intermuscular septum to pass from the posterior to the anterior compartment of the arm. Approximately how far proximal to the lateral epicondyle does this anatomic transition occur?

. 2 cm
. 5 cm
. 10 cm
. 15 cm
. 20 cm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 10 cm


Explanation

The radial nerve pierces the lateral intermuscular septum approximately 10 cm proximal to the lateral epicondyle. This predictable anatomic location puts it at high risk of tethering and injury in distal third humeral shaft fractures.

Question 8717

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 22-year-old male presents with a proximal pole scaphoid nonunion. The vulnerability of the proximal pole to avascular necrosis is due to its retrograde blood supply. The principal vessel supplying the proximal pole enters the scaphoid at which of the following anatomic locations?

. Volar tubercle
. Distal articular surface
. Scapholunate interosseous ligament
. Dorsal ridge
. Proximal articular surface

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Dorsal ridge


Explanation

The dorsal carpal branch of the radial artery provides the dominant blood supply to the scaphoid (proximal 80%). It enters through foramina along the dorsal ridge at the waist and distal pole, flowing retrogradely to the proximal pole.

Question 8718

Topic: 2. Trauma

In a skeletally mature patient, an intracapsular femoral neck fracture significantly compromises the blood supply to the femoral head. Which vessel supplies the majority of blood to the adult femoral head?

. Ligamentum teres artery
. Inferior gluteal artery
. Lateral femoral circumflex artery
. Medial femoral circumflex artery
. First perforating branch of the profunda femoris

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medial femoral circumflex artery


Explanation

The medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA), specifically its lateral epiphyseal branch, provides the predominant blood supply to the femoral head in adults. It courses posteriorly and is highly vulnerable in displaced femoral neck fractures.

Question 8719

Topic: Upper Extremity Trauma

During a modified Weaver-Dunn procedure for acromioclavicular joint separation, the coracoacromial (CA) ligament is transferred to the distal clavicle. Which anatomic structure attaches to the medial border of the coracoid process?

. Conjoined tendon
. Coracoacromial ligament
. Pectoralis minor tendon
. Trapezoid ligament
. Conoid ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pectoralis minor tendon


Explanation

The pectoralis minor inserts on the medial border and superior surface of the coracoid process. The conjoined tendon inserts at the tip, while the coracoclavicular ligaments attach to the base.

Question 8720

Topic: 2. Trauma

When performing open reduction and internal fixation of a calcaneus fracture via a medial approach, the surgeon visualizes a prominent bony shelf, the sustentaculum tali. Which tendon runs immediately inferior to this structure?

. Tibialis posterior
. Flexor digitorum longus
. Flexor hallucis longus
. Peroneus brevis
. Peroneus longus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Flexor hallucis longus


Explanation

The flexor hallucis longus (FHL) tendon passes through a groove located immediately inferior to the sustentaculum tali. The flexor digitorum longus and tibialis posterior lie superior/medial to it.