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Question 6161

Topic: 2. Trauma
A 28-year-old man is brought to the trauma center after a high-speed motorcycle collision. Radiographs reveal an isolated, highly displaced, vertically oriented basicervical femoral neck fracture (Pauwels type III). Open reduction and internal fixation is planned. Which of the following fixation constructs is most biomechanically appropriate to resist the predominant deforming forces in this specific fracture pattern?
. Three parallel partially threaded cancellous lag screws in an inverted triangle
. Three parallel fully threaded cancellous screws in an inverted triangle
. A sliding hip screw (fixed-angle device) with an anti-rotation cancellous screw
. A standard cephalomedullary nail with a single proximal lag screw
. Two parallel partially threaded cancellous lag screws

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A sliding hip screw (fixed-angle device) with an anti-rotation cancellous screw


Explanation

Pauwels type III femoral neck fractures (fracture line > 50 degrees from the horizontal) are characterized by a highly vertical orientation, which subjects the fracture site to immense vertical shear forces rather than compressive forces. In young adults, anatomic reduction and absolutely stable internal fixation are critical to prevent varus collapse, nonunion, and osteonecrosis. Biomechanical studies consistently demonstrate that multiple parallel cancellous lag screws are insufficient at resisting these high vertical shear forces and carry a significantly higher failure rate in Pauwels III patterns. A fixed-angle device, such as a sliding hip screw, provides a mechanically robust construct that acts as a buttress against vertical shear, offering superior resistance to varus collapse. The addition of a derotational screw placed superiorly provides necessary rotational stability during initial healing. Standard cephalomedullary nails do not offer superior biomechanical advantages for isolated femoral neck fractures over a sliding hip screw and carry additional risks regarding entry point morbidity.

Question 6162

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 9-year-old boy sustained a traumatic brain injury and right lower extremity trauma in an accident involving a motor vehicle and a pedestrian. Initial evaluation in the emergency department reveals an obtunded patient who is breathing spontaneously and withdraws appropriately to painful stimuli. After initial resuscitation and stabilization, a CT scan reveals a right parietal intracranial hemorrhage. Radiographs of the swollen right thigh are shown in Figures 32a and 32b. Management of the fractured femur should ultimately consist of

. immediate hip spica casting.
. closed reduction and percutaneous pin fixation supplemented by a hip spica cast.
. placement in 90-90 traction after insertion of a distal femoral traction pin.
. insertion of a reamed antegrade intramedullary nail starting at the piriformis fossa, stopping the nail short of the distal femoral growth plate.
. closed reduction and stabilization using retrograde flexible intramedullary nails.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. closed reduction and stabilization using retrograde flexible intramedullary nails.


Explanation

A child with a traumatic brain injury generally achieves significant neurologic recovery and has a more favorable prognosis than an adult. Early stabilization of fractures facilitates transportation of the child for diagnostic tests and decreases the incidence of shortening and malunion. Surgical treatment of the fracture is indicated when cerebral perfusion pressure has stabilized. Casting or traction is not the most appropriate treatment of a femoral fracture in a child of this age with a brain injury. Fracture reduction is difficult to maintain if the brain injury leads to spasticity, and transportation within the hospital for tests is more difficult. Insertion of a reamed antegrade intramedullary nail inserted at the piriformis fossa is associated with a small risk of osteonecrosis of the femoral head. The transverse femoral fracture in this patient is ideally suited for stabilization with flexible intramedullary nails. Ligier and associates treated 123 femoral shaft fractures in children with flexible intramedullary nails, including 35 patients with head injury. In one patient with hemiplegia and a urinary tract infection, a deep wound infection developed, necessitating nail removal. The remaining patients all healed without major complications. Heinrich and associates treated 78 diaphyseal femoral fractures with flexible intramedullary nails, including 14 with head injury. No major complications were reported and all fractures healed. Tolo VT: Management of the multiply injured child, in Rockwood CA, Wilkins KE, Beaty JH (eds): Fractures in Children, ed 4. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott-Raven, 1996, pp 83-95. Ligier JN, Metaizeau JP, Prevot J, et al: Elastic stable intramedullary nailing of femoral shaft fractures in children. J Bone Joint Surg Br 1988;70:74-77. Heinrich MS, Drvaric DM, Darr K, et al: The operative stabilization of pediatric diaphyseal femur fractures with flexible intramedullary nails: A prospective analysis. J Pediatric Orthop 1994;14:501-507.

Question 6163

Topic: 2. Trauma

Figures 9a and 9b show the radiographs of a 4-year-old child who sustained an elbow injury. What is the most likely complication resulting from this fracture if treated in a cast?

. Elbow stiffness
. Nonunion
. Osteonecrosis
. Varus malunion from overgrowth
. Fishtail deformity

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Nonunion


Explanation

The radiographs show a lateral condyle fracture with 2 mm of displacement. As opposed to other pediatric elbow fractures, lateral condyle fractures have a higher incidence of nonunion. This may be due to minimal metaphyseal bone on the distal fragment, the intra-articular nature of the fracture, or from further displacement when treated nonsurgically. These fractures with 2 mm and greater of displacement should be treated with reduction and stabilization. Osteonecrosis and fishtail deformity may be seen in very rare cases of lateral condyle fractures. The incidence is certainly less than the rates of nonunion seen in nonsurgically treated fractures with 2 mm and greater of displacement. Varus malunion from overgrowth and elbow stiffness are more likely seen in fractures treated surgically. Pirker ME, Weinberg AM, Hollwarth ME, et al: Subsequent displacement of initially nondisplaced and minimally displaced fractures of the lateral humeral condyle in children. J Trauma 2005;58:1202-1207. Finnbogason T, Karlsson G, Lindberg L, et al: Nondisplaced and minimally displaced fractures of the lateral humeral condyle in children: A prospective radiographic investigation of fracture stability. J Pediatr Orthop 1995;15:422-425.

Question 6164

Topic: 2. Trauma

A paraplegic 32-year-old man was pulling himself up in bed by grasping the headboard rails when he felt a pop and immediate pain. A radiograph and CT scan are shown in Figures 2a and 2b. Based on these findings, management should consist of

. rest and a sling for 3 to 6 weeks.
. physical therapy with modalities for pain relief.
. pain medication and activity as tolerated.
. open reduction and internal fixation.
. coracoid excision.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. open reduction and internal fixation.


Explanation

The coracoid process is an essential component of the superior shoulder suspensory complex and must be maintained. Open reduction and internal fixation is recommended if the fragment is large and displaced more than 1 cm. Froimson AI: Fracture of the coracoid process of the scapula. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1978;60:710-711.

Question 6165

Topic: Upper Extremity Trauma

A 14-year-old boy who is right handed reports right shoulder pain. Radiographs show a lucent lesion of the proximal humeral epiphysis with a narrow zone of transition. Results of an open biopsy confirm the presence of a chondroblastoma. Based on these findings, the next most appropriate step in management should consist of

Orthopedic Surgery Board Review 2026 | High-Yield MCQs - Set 6 - Figure 24

. intralesional curettage and bone grafting.
. intra-articular resection of the proximal humerus and endoprosthetic replacement.
. intra-articular resection of the proximal humerus and osteoarticular allograft reconstruction.
. extra-articular resection of the proximal humerus and allograft arthrodesis of the shoulder.
. observation and serial radiographs.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. intralesional curettage and bone grafting.


Explanation

The patient has a chondroblastoma of the proximal humerus; therefore, the treatment of choice is curettage and bone grafting. Surgical resection of the proximal humerus is not indicated in the initial treatment of an intraosseous chondroblastoma. Mirra JM: Bone Tumors: Clinical, Radiologic, and Pathologic Correlations. Philadelphia, PA, Lea and Febiger, 1989, pp 589-623.

Question 6166

Topic: 2. Trauma

A left-handed 23-year-old man who fell 5 feet from a ladder onto his left elbow sustained the closed injury shown in Figure 26. Management should consist of

Orthopedic Surgery Board Review 2026 | High-Yield MCQs - Set 5 - Figure 108

. percutaneous pin fixation.
. a percutaneous 6.5-mm screw.
. long arm casting in flexion.
. open reduction and internal fixation with a tension band plate.
. closed reduction and long arm casting in extension.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. open reduction and internal fixation with a tension band plate.


Explanation

The radiographs reveal a displaced olecranon fracture. To maximize joint congruity of this intra-articular injury, open reduction and internal fixation is the treatment of choice. A tension band plate will assist with maintenance of the reduction and may aid in early range of motion because injuries to the elbow are prone to stiffness. The oblique fracture line is particularly well suited to plate fixation. Percutaneous pin fixation is unlikely to achieve anatomic joint reduction that can be obtained with open means. External immobilization will not accomplish joint reduction and will most likely lead to a nonunion. Hotchkiss RN: Fractures and dislocations of the elbow, in Rockwood CA Jr, Green DP, Bucholz RW, Heckman JD (eds): Rockwood and Green's Fractures in Adults, ed 4. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott-Raven, 1996, pp 929-1024. Murphy DF, Greene WB, Gilbert JA, Dameron TB Jr: Displaced olecranon fractures in adults: Biomechanical analysis of fixation methods. Clin Orthop 1987;224:210-214.

Question 6167

Topic: 2. Trauma
A 12-year-old boy sustained a grade III open tibial fracture 1 week ago and underwent multiple debridements and fracture fixation. He now has a soft-tissue defect that measures 6 cm x 6 cm, with an area of exposed bone and muscle on the distal medial leg that is a few centimeters proximal to the ankle. Management of the soft-tissue defect should now consist of:
. a gastrocnemius flap.
. a split-thickness skin graft.
. vacuum-assisted closure (VAC), followed by possible skin graft.
. wet-to-dry dressing, followed by possible skin graft.
. below-knee amputation.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. vacuum-assisted closure (VAC), followed by possible skin graft.


Explanation

The soft-tissue defect is in a very difficult position - the distal tibia. The defect is too distal for a gastrocnemius flap, and the exposed bone precludes an immediate skin graft. A free flap and skin graft would be required for closure. VAC is very effective in soft-tissue defects such as this one. Healthy granulation tissues form quickly. VAC can be the definitive treatment, or it can be used before skin grafting. Wet-to-dry dressings could promote granulation, but the process is hastened substantially by VAC. Amputation is not a consideration because there are no signs of infection or fracture healing problems at this time. Mooney JF III, Argenta LC, Marks MW, et al: Treatment of soft tissue defects in pediatric patients using the V.A.C. system. Clin Orthop 2000;376:26-31.

Question 6168

Topic: 2. Trauma

Figures 7a and 7b show the radiographs of a 51-year-old woman who injured her left leg after falling off a stepladder. Surgical reconstruction is performed with a compression screw and side plate; the postoperative radiograph is shown in Figure 7c. Following gradual progression of weight bearing, she reports that she slipped again and placed full weight on the extremity. She now notes a new onset of increased pain in her left thigh and hip region. Follow-up radiographs are shown in Figures 7d and 7e. Reconstruction should consist of

. conversion to a longer side plate with the same compression screw and tube angle.
. in situ bone grafting.
. hardware removal and reconstruction with an intramedullary device that provides fixation into the femoral head and neck.
. hardware removal and retrograde femoral nailing.
. revision reconstruction with cerclage wiring.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. hardware removal and reconstruction with an intramedullary device that provides fixation into the femoral head and neck.


Explanation

The initial fracture was an unstable reverse oblique intertrochanteric fracture with subtrochanteric extension. Initial fixation with a high-angled screw and side plate construct may not provide stability as well as a 95 degree fixed-angle device or a intramedullary hip screw device. The follow-up radiographs show loss of fixation and further propagation of the fracture distally. Reconstruction would best be accomplished with hardware removal and conversion to a long intramedullary nail with femoral head fixation or a 95 degree angled plate and screw device. Conversion to a longer plate does not improve the biomechanical situation at the primary fracture site. In situ bone grafting would not provide any additional stability and would not correct the deformity. The proximal femoral fracture is not amenable to retrograde nailing. Cerclage wiring will not sufficiently enhance stability and is not indicated. Bridle SH, Patel AD, Bircher M, Calvert PT: Fixation of intertrochanteric fractures of the femur: A randomized prospective comparison of a gamma nail and dynamic hip screw. J Bone Joint Surg Br 1991;73:330-334. DeLee JC: Fractures and dislocations of the hip, in Rockwood CA Jr, Green DP, Bucholz RW, Heckman JD (eds): Rockwood and Green's Fractures in Adults, ed 4. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott-Raven, 1996, pp 1659-1825. Haidukewych GJ, Israel TA, Berry DJ: Reverse obliquity fractures of the intertrochanteric region of the femur. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2001;83:643-650.

Question 6169

Topic: Pelvic & Acetabular Trauma

Figure 33a shows a line drawing of a normal hemipelvis. The anterior acetabular rim is bold. Figure 33b illustrates a hemipelvis with a crossover sign, which is indicative of what acetabular pathology?

. Low acetabular index
. Excessive acetabular retroversion
. Deficient anterior column bone
. Labral detachment
. Pelvic discontinuity

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Excessive acetabular retroversion


Explanation

In a normal AP pelvis radiograph, the anterior rim of the acetabulum runs medially and distally, diverging from the posterior rim which runs much more vertically. In excessive acetabular retroversion, the anterior rim (bold line in Figure 33b) and posterior rim start laterally, and as these lines progress medially and distally, the anterior line crosses the posterior line. This predisposes to femoral acetabular impingement. Reynolds D, Lucas J, Klaue K: Retroversion of the acetabulum: A cause of hip pain. J Bone Joint Surg Br 1999;81:281-288.

Question 6170

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 63-year-old woman who sustained a distal radial fracture 2 months ago now reports that she is unable to achieve active extension of the thumb at the interphalangeal joint. What type of trauma may lead to this clinical finding?

. Nondisplaced fracture
. Open fracture
. Severely comminuted fracture
. Dorsal perilunate dislocation
. Repeated attempts at reduction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Nondisplaced fracture


Explanation

Nondisplaced distal radial fractures have a higher rate of spontaneous rupture of the extensor pollicis longus tendon. The extensor mechanism is felt to impinge on the tendon following a nondisplaced fracture and causes either a mechanical attrition of the tendon or a local area of ischemia in the tendon. Helal B, Chen SC, Iwegbu G: Rupture of the extensor pollicis longus tendon in undisplaced Colles' type of fracture. Hand 1982;14:41-47.

Question 6171

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 35-year-old man is seen in the emergency department with a bullet wound to the foot that occurred 2 hours ago. Examination reveals a 0.5-cm entrance wound on the dorsum of the foot and a 1.5-cm exit wound on the plantar aspect. Exploration of the plantar wound in the emergency department reveals bone and metal fragments. Radiographs reveal a comminuted, unstable fracture of the base of the first metatarsal and cuneiform. Management should consist of tetanus toxoid, and

. surface irrigation, sterile dressing, and a short leg cast.
. surface irrigation, sterile dressing, a short leg cast, and oral antibiotics.
. surface irrigation, sterile dressing, a short leg cast, and IV antibiotics.
. surgical debridement, a short leg cast, and IV antibiotics.
. surgical debridement, external or internal fixation, and IV antibiotics.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. surgical debridement, a short leg cast, and IV antibiotics.


Explanation

The patient sustained a type I unstable fracture that requires debridement of superficial fragments from the sole and surgical stabilization. Low-velocity wounds less than 8 hours old are considered type I open fractures. In contrast, gunshot wounds with associated fractures more than 8 hours old are considered type II open fractures using the Gustilo and Anderson classification. Gustilo type I stable fractures due to gunshot wounds and seen within 8 hours can be treated with tetanus toxoid (if no history of immunization or booster within 5 years), surface irrigation, and casting or a hard sole shoe. Antibiotics are not required unless gross contamination is present. However, if the extent of contamination is unclear, or if a joint is penetrated, then routine antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended. Indications for surgery include: articular involvement, unstable fractures, presentation 8 or more hours after injury, tendon involvement, and superficial fragments in the palm or sole. Type I unstable fractures may be stabilized with internal or external fixation. Type II unstable fractures should be treated with external fixation and repeat debridements until clean. Holmes GB Jr: Gunshot wounds of the foot. Clin Orthop Relat Res 2003;408:86-91.

Question 6172

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 24-year-old man is ejected from his motorcycle and sustains a significant hip injury. The fracture shown in Figures 64a through 64e is best described as what type of fracture?

. Posterior column/posterior wall acetabular
. Associated both column acetabular
. Transverse plus posterior wall acetabular
. Anterior column posterior hemitransverse acetabular
. Anterior column acetabular

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior column acetabular


Explanation

The radiographs and CT scans reveal an anterior column acetabular fracture. The fracture has quadrilateral plate extension but does not exit out the posterior column. The CT scans confirm an intact posterior column and no wall fracture. A transverse fracture is best seen on the CT scan and runs in the sagittal plane, not the coronal plane. Letournel E, Judet R: Fractures of the Acetabulum, ed 2. New York, NY, Springer-Verlag, 1993, pp 115-140.

Question 6173

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 71-year-old woman who reports long-term use of oral steroids for asthma is referred for treatment of a distal humerus fracture. Radiographs reveal diffuse osteopenia and a severely comminuted intra-articular fracture. What is the most appropriate treatment?

. Long arm cast immobilization
. Total elbow arthroplasty
. Open reduction and internal fixation
. Osteoarticular allograft
. Resection arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Total elbow arthroplasty


Explanation

Several studies have documented the satisfactory outcomes of total elbow arthroplasty when osteosynthesis is not feasible for fixation of a distal humerus fracture, particularly in the physiologically older patient with low functional demands. Total elbow arthroplasty should be considered when a comminuted intra-articular distal humerus fracture occurs in a woman older than age 65 years, particularly with such associated comorbidities as systemic steroid use, osteoporosis, or rheumatoid arthritis. Kamineni S, Morrey BF: Distal humeral fractures treated with noncustom total elbow replacement. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2004;86:940-947. Frankle MA, Herscovici D Jr, DiPasquale TG, et al: A comparison of open reduction and internal fixation and primary total elbow arthroplasty in the treatment of intraarticular distal humerus fractures in women older than 65. J Orthop Trauma 2003;17:473-480.

Question 6174

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 24-year-old man was thrown from a car and is seen in the emergency department with a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 8. A CT scan of the head shows no significant bleeding. The patient is hemodynamically stable. The left femur has the closed injury shown on the radiographs in Figures 53a and 53b. What is the best treatment for this patient?

. Skin traction for the femur, with a follow-up CT scan of the head in the morning
. Distal femur skeletal traction, with a follow-up CT scan of the head in the morning
. External fixation of the femur with delayed intramedullary nailing
. Intramedullary nailing of the femur
. Ventriculostomy and external fixation of the femur

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Intramedullary nailing of the femur


Explanation

Treatment of patients with a closed head injury and a femoral fracture remains controversial but recent data suggest that intramedullary nails done acutely with avoidance of intraoperative hypotension did not compromise the outcome related to the head injury. This was especially true for high-level GCS scores. A GCS score of lower than 8 and intraoperative hypotension have been associated with worsening outcomes following acute intramedullary nailing of the femur. Skin traction and distal femur skeletal traction in a young adult man with a femoral fracture is not well tolerated secondary to spasm and pain. External fixation is an option but an unnecessary step in the treatment of this patient. Ventriculostomy is not necessary in stable patients with no significant bleeding on a CT scan of the head. Starr AJ, Hunt JL, Chason DP, et al: Treatment of femur fracture with associated head injury. J Orthop Trauma 1998;12:38-45. Nau T, Kutscha-Lissberg F, Muellner T, et al: Effects of a femoral shaft fracture on multiply injured patients with a head injury. World J Surg 2003;27:365-369. McKee MD, Schemitsch EH, Vincent LO, et al: The effect of a femoral fracture on concomitant closed head injury in patients with multiple injuries. J Trauma 1997;42:1041-1045.

Question 6175

Topic: 2. Trauma

Figure 18a shows the initial lateral radiograph of a 6-year-old girl who sustained a fracture in a motor vehicle accident and was treated in a cast 1 year ago. She now has the valgus deformity seen in Figure 18b. Treatment should consist of

. observation.
. high tibial osteotomy.
. MRI and assessment for growth arrest and bar excision.
. stapling of the lateral tibial physis.
. external fixation and hemichondrodiastasis.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. observation.


Explanation

Proximal tibial metaphyseal fractures may result in late genu valgum as a result of asymmetric growth of the proximal tibia. These patients are best treated with observation because the deformity is likely to remodel. Osteotomy is not indicated and potentially will lead to recurrence. Stapling of the medial tibial physis is appropriate in patients who have a severe and progressive deformity. Cozen L: Knock-knee deformity in children: Congenital and acquired. Clin Orthop 1990;258:191-203. Jackson DW, Cozen L: Genu valgum as a complication of proximal tibial metaphyseal fractures in children. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1971;53:1571-1578. Brammar TJ, Rooker GD: Remodeling of valgus deformity secondary to proximal metaphyseal fracture of the tibia. Injury 1998;29:558-560. Ogden JA, Ogden DA, Pugh L, et al: Tibia valga after proximal metaphyseal fractures in childhood: A normal biologic response. J Pediatr Orthop 1995;15:489-494.

Question 6176

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 22-year-old patient sustained a jamming injury to the right little finger. The lateral radiograph shown in Figure 18 reveals comminution of the base of the middle phalanx, with palmar and dorsal metaphyseal cortical involvement. The articular surface also is disrupted. Management should consist of

General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 16) - Figure 37

. indirect fracture reduction via traction and early mobilization.
. volar plate arthroplasty.
. open reduction and internal fixation.
. closed reduction and percutaneous pin fixation.
. cast immobilization.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. indirect fracture reduction via traction and early mobilization.


Explanation

This fracture, known as a pilon fracture, represents comminution of the base of the middle phalanx with both palmar and dorsal cortical disruption. The treatment method that allows the best function and fewest complications is indirect reduction achieved through specific dynamic splinting or the use of specifically designed proximal interphalangeal joint external fixators. Early mobilization can be achieved by either of these techniques. Volar plate arthroplasty is indicated for a simple fracture-dislocation of the proximal interphalangeal joint with comminution of the volar fracture fragment and dorsal dislocation of the remaining articular surface. Open reduction and internal fixation or percutaneous pinning adds surgical risks and scarring and typically will not provide added stability. Cast immobilization will not achieve the goal of early range of motion. Stern PJ, Roman RJ, Kiefhaber TR, McDonough JJ: Pilon fractures of the proximal interphalangeal joint. J Hand Surg Am 1991;16:844-850.

Question 6177

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 30-year-old man landed on his shoulder in a fall off his mountain bike. An AP radiograph and CT scan are shown in Figures 34a and 34b. Management should consist of

. immobilization in a sling and swathe.
. open reduction and internal fixation.
. humeral arthroplasty.
. subscapularis transfer into the humeral head articular defect.
. a hanging cast.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. open reduction and internal fixation.


Explanation

The radiograph shows a valgus impacted four-part fracture. The humeral head is deeply depressed into the metaphysis but is still articulating with the glenoid as seen on the CT scan. Unlike a "classic" four-part fracture in which the head is dislocated out of the glenoid and devoid of any soft-tissue attachments (high risk of osteonecrosis), this valgus impacted head will have a medial soft-tissue hinge with a lower risk of osteonecrosis. It is most amenable to open reduction and internal fixation with minimal soft-tissue stripping techniques. Bone grafting may be necessary on occasion. Nonsurgical management for displaced proximal humeral fractures generally results in a poor outcome. This patient does not have a humeral head defect. A hemiarthroplasty is not indicated. Jakob RP, Miniaci A, Anson PS, et al: Four-part valgus impacted fractures of the proximal humerus. J Bone Joint Surg Br 1991;73:295-298.

Question 6178

Topic: 2. Trauma

Figure 11 shows the radiograph of an 18-year-old soccer player who reports recurrent lateral foot pain after sustaining an inversion injury. History reveals that 6 months ago he had been treated in a non-weight-bearing cast for a fifth metatarsal fracture. Management should consist of

General Orthopedics 2026 Practice Questions: Set 15 (Solved) - Figure 111

. intermedullary fixation.
. a brace or taping to limit inversion stress.
. a short leg walking cast or a fracture walker.
. a non-weight-bearing short leg cast.
. a rigid orthotic insole, with early motion exercises.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. intermedullary fixation.


Explanation

Fractures in this area of the fifth metatarsal have a high incidence of delayed union, nonunion, and recurrence with nonsurgical management. In an acute fracture, prolonged casting in a non-weight-bearing cast may allow for healing; however, in the presence of prolonged symptoms, recurrent fracture, and intermedullary sclerosis, surgical treatment is preferred. Surgery most commonly consists of intermedullary fixation or medullary curettage and bone grafting, followed by application of a non-weight-bearing cast. Torg JS, Balduini FC, Zelko RR, Pavlov H, Peff TC, Das M: Fractures of the base of the fifth metatarsal distal to the tuberosity: Classification and guidelines for nonsurgical and surgical management. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1984;66:209-214.

Question 6179

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 12-year-old girl has a 4-cm limb-length discrepancy following a fracture of the left distal femur 2 years ago. Examination reveals 18 degrees of genu valgum on the involved side, with 7 degrees of genu valgum on the opposite side. Radiographs show that the left distal femoral growth plate is now closed; however, the tibial growth plate is still open. Her bone age matches her chronologic age. Management should consist of

. closed right femoral shortening.
. left femoral lengthening.
. left tibial lengthening.
. a left 3-cm shoe lift.
. epiphyseodesis of the right distal femur and proximal tibia.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. left femoral lengthening.


Explanation

The patient has a projected limb-length discrepancy of 7 cm. This includes the 4 cm she already has, plus 3 cm expected growth of the uninvolved distal femur during the 3 years of growth she has remaining. She also has moderate limb deformity. Femoral lengthening is considered the treatment of choice because it can address both the limb-length discrepancy and the deformity. Epiphyseodesis will not result in limb-length equality at maturity, with only approximately 1.8 cm of equalization expected from this procedure. Use of closed femoral shortening of 7 cm runs the risk of weakening the quadriceps on the normal side and will leave the patient with a remaining residual valgus deformity. Tibial lengthening will leave the knees at different levels. A shoe lift can be prescribed as a temporary measure but is not a good long-term solution. Westh RN, Menelaus MB: A simple calculation for the timing of epiphyseal arrest: A further report. J Bone Joint Surg Br 1981;63:117-119. Sasso RC, Urquhart BA, Cain TE: Closed femoral shortening. J Pediatr Orthop 1993;13:51-56.

Question 6180

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 12-year-old girl falls in gymnastics and sustains comminuted midshaft radius and ulna fractures. Closed reduction and cast immobilization are attempted but fracture redisplacement with 20 degrees of angulation occurs. Surgical treatment includes closed reduction and intramedullary fixation of both bones. What is the most common long-term complication for this fracture?

. Infection
. Malunion
. Loss of forearm rotation
. Refracture
. Delayed union/nonunion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Loss of forearm rotation


Explanation

Healing of forearm fractures in skeletally immature patients is the usual outcome. The use of intramedullary fixation has been reported to result in a lower frequency of refractures when compared to plate osteosynthesis due to the absence of diaphyseal holes after plate removal, which are considered stress risers. Regardless of implant technique, malunion and infection are infrequent. Loss of forearm pronation and supination is a common occurrence in surgically treated fractures due to the higher degree of soft-tissue injury, and periosteal stripping leads to fracture site instability and fracture comminution. Luhmann SJ, Gordon JE, Schoenecker PL: Intramedullary fixation of unstable both-bone forearm fractures in children. J Pediatr Orthop 1998;18:451-456.