2. Trauma MCQs

You are treating a 45-year-old male with a posteromedial shear fracture of the tibial plateau (Schatzker IV variant). Which surgical approach is most appropriate for direct visualization and buttress plating of this specific fragment?

A 65-year-old female sustains a distal radius fracture. Radiographs show a volar marginal articular fracture fragment with volar subluxation of the carpus. Which of the following eponymous terms correctly describes this fracture pattern?

A 35-year-old male sustains a vertically unstable (Tile C) pelvic ring disruption in a motor vehicle collision. He arrives at the trauma bay hypotensive and tachycardic. To control severe venous bleeding, emergent preperitoneal pelvic packing is performed. Into which specific anatomic space are the laparotomy sponges packed?

A 26-year-old male polytrauma patient sustains an open book pelvic fracture and bilateral closed femoral shaft fractures. His blood pressure is 80/40 mmHg, HR 130 bpm, base deficit -10, and lactate 5 mmol/L. Following initial pelvic binding and resuscitation, his physiologic parameters remain unchanged. What is the most appropriate next step in the orthopedic management of his femoral fractures?

In a posteromedial shear fracture of the tibial plateau (Schatzker IV), which surgical approach and fixation strategy provides the most biomechanically stable construct to resist the primary deforming forces?

A 30-year-old man sustains a closed spiral fracture of the distal third of the humeral shaft (Holstein-Lewis fracture). On examination, he is unable to actively extend his wrist or fingers. He is scheduled for open reduction and internal fixation. During surgical exploration, where is the radial nerve most likely to be found in relation to the lateral intermuscular septum?

A 40-year-old hemodynamically unstable male presents after a motorcycle accident. Pelvic radiographs show a symphysis pubis diastasis of 4 cm and widening of the anterior sacroiliac joints bilaterally, with intact posterior SI ligaments (APC Type II). What is the primary source of life-threatening hemorrhage in this specific injury pattern?

A 40-year-old male sustains a high-energy complex tibial plateau fracture involving a large, displaced posteromedial fragment (Schatzker IV). The surgeon plans a direct posteromedial approach for buttress plating. Which of the following describes the correct inter-nervous or muscular interval for this specific approach?

A 45-year-old man undergoes an open reduction and internal fixation of a displaced proximal third humeral shaft fracture via an anterolateral approach. Postoperatively, he is unable to extend his wrist or fingers, though he had full function preoperatively. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management for this neurological deficit?

A 22-year-old man falls on an outstretched hand and presents with anatomic snuffbox tenderness. Radiographs show a displaced fracture of the proximal pole of the scaphoid. He is informed that he is at high risk for avascular necrosis (AVN) and nonunion. This risk is primarily due to the scaphoid's blood supply, which predominantly enters the bone at which location?

A 28-year-old motorcyclist is brought to the trauma bay after a high-speed collision. Radiographs demonstrate widening of the pubic symphysis of 3.5 cm and widening of the anterior sacroiliac joints bilaterally. The posterior sacroiliac ligaments appear intact on CT scan. According to the Young-Burgess classification, which of the following is the most likely associated systemic injury or complication?

A 22-year-old soccer player sustains a twisting injury to his knee. Radiographs demonstrate a small, elliptical cortical avulsion fracture of the anterolateral proximal tibia. Biomechanical studies indicate that the primary anatomical structure avulsed in this injury pattern functions to resist which of the following knee motions?