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Question 3421

Topic: 2. Trauma
A 54-year-old man sustained a small superficial abrasion over the left acromioclavicular joint after falling from his bicycle. Examination reveals no other physical findings. Radiographs show a displaced fracture of the lateral end of the clavicle distal to a line drawn vertically to the coracoid process. Management should consist of
. open reduction and plate fixation.
. a figure-of-8 bandage for 4 to 6 weeks.
. a sling for comfort, followed by physical therapy when pain-free.
. excision of the outer end of the clavicle.
. a tension band and Kirschner wires.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. a sling for comfort, followed by physical therapy when pain-free.


Explanation

Displaced clavicular fractures lateral to the coracoid process (Neer type II and III) are best managed nonsurgically with sling immobilization and physical therapy, starting with pendulum exercises and progressing to active-assisted exercises when comfortable. Supervised therapy should be performed for 3 months or until full painless motion is achieved. In one study by Robinson and Cairns, this form of treatment provided patients with an 86% chance of avoiding a secondary reconstructive procedure.

Question 3422

Topic: Lower Extremity Trauma
  • Which of the following is considered an advantage of an unreamed intramedullary nail over a reamed intramedullary nail?
. Avoids the risk of marrow emboli
. Avoids injury to the intramedullary nutrient vessels
. Results in faster healing of fractures
. Results in more secure fixation
. Results in faster regeneration of the endosteal blood supply

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Results in faster regeneration of the endosteal blood supply


Explanation

The advantage of an unreamed intramedullary nail is a loose-fitting intramedullary rod. Placed in the medullary canal, it allows the endosteal circulation to regenerate rapidly and completely where space has been left between the nail and the endosteal surface. The endosteal blood vessels are destroyed during introduction of reamed intramedullary nail.

Question 3423

Topic: 2. Trauma

The radiographic finding in Figure 58 is indicative of what type of acetabular fracture?

. Anterior column
. Posterior column
. Associated both column
. Transverse
. Associated transverse plus posterior wall

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Associated both column


Explanation

The radiographic image is an obturator oblique view of the left acetabulum and demonstrates a "spur" sign. It represents a spike of bone from the intact hemipelvis and no articular surface remains with the hemipelvis, which defines the associated both column fracture. The weight-bearing surface of the acetabulum is displaced with the femoral head. In all other patterns, at least part of the articular surface remains with the intact hemipelvis.(SBQ12TR.58) A 35-year-old male was involved in a high speed motorcycle accident. He has a closed head injury, bilateral pulmonary contusions and splenic rupture. His orthopaedic injuries are shown in Figure A. He has a blood pressure of 90/50 mm Hg and a heart rate of 115, despite aggressive resuscitation. An arterial blood gas reveals that his blood lactate is 3.5 and base deficit is -6 mmol/L. Following successful closed reduction of the right hip in the operating room with a percutaneous inserted Schantz pin, what is the next most appropriate treatment for his orthopaedic injuries?ReviewTopicBilateral open reduction and internal fixationOpen reduction internal fixation on the right, reamed intramedullary nailing on the leftTemporizing external fixation on the right, open reduction and internal fixation on the leftBilateral reamed intramedullary nailingBilateral temporizing external fixationThis patient presents with features of hemodynamic instability and a high injury severity score. The next most appropriate treatment would be temporizing external fixation bilaterally. This patient meets the criteria for damage control orthopaedics.Damage control orthopaedics is an approach that contains and stabilizes orthopaedic injuries so that the patient's overall physiology does not undergo further inflammatory insult. As a result, external fixation of femoral shaft fracture and pelvic stabilization is an effective treatment under this strategy. Other indications include vascular injury and severe open fracture.Pallister et al. reviewed the effects of surgical fracture fixation on the systemic inflammatory response to major trauma. They show that early stabilization of major long bone fractures is beneficial in reducing the incidence of acute respiratory distress syndrome and multiple organ failure. However, early fracture surgery increases the post-traumatic inflammatory response, which carries a higher complication rate compared to temporary fixation.Tisherman et al. created clinical guidelines for the endpoints of resuscitation. Level I data found that standard hemodynamic parameters do not adequately quantify the degree of physiologic derangement in trauma patients. The initial base deficit, lactate level, or gastric pH should be used to stratify patients with regard to the need for ongoing fluid resuscitation.Pape et al. retrospectively reviewed the impact of early total care vs. damage control orthopaedics in the treatment of femoral shaft fractures in polytrauma patients. They found a significantly higher incidence of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) with intramedullary nailing (15.1%) compared to external fixation (9.1%) when DCO subgroups were compared.Figure A is a pelvic AP radiograph showing a right hip fracture-dislocation with an ipsilateral femoral shaft fracture. On the left side there is a displaced pertrochanteric hip fracture.Incorrect Answers:

Question 3424

Topic: 2. Trauma
What anatomic site is considered at highest risk for pathologic fracture?
. Humeral neck
. Humeral diaphysis
. Subtrochanteric femur
. Femoral diaphysis
. Pelvis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Subtrochanteric femur


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The subtrochanteric femur has been identified as an anatomic site that is particularly prone to pathologic fracture. An avulsion fracture of the lesser trochanter is a sign of impending femoral fracture. While the other anatomic locations are also frequently involved in metastatic bone disease, pathologic fractures occur less commonly. REFERENCES: Simon MA, Springfield DS, et al: Surgery for Bone and Soft Tissue Tumors. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Raven, 1998, p 683. Harrington KD, Sim FH, Enis JE, Johnston JO, Diok HM, Gristina AG: Methylmethacrylate as an adjunct in internal fixation of pathological fractures: Experience with three hundred and seventy-five cases. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1976;58:1047-1055.

Question 3425

Topic: 2. Trauma
A patient who was involved in a motor vehicle accident 2 days ago now reports neck pain. He denies any other symptoms. Radiographs reveal a type II odontoid fracture that is 2 mm anteriorly displaced. Management consists of halo vest immobilization in extension, and repeat radiographs reveal that the fracture is completely reduced. The patient is discharged to home, but later that evening he notes difficulty swallowing while trying to eat dinner. What is the most likely cause of this difficulty?
. Injury to the recurrent laryngeal nerve
. Injury to the superior laryngeal nerve
. Esophageal trauma at the time of the fracture or at the time of the reduction
. Retropharyngeal edema or hematoma from the fracture
. Halo vest placement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Retropharyngeal edema or hematoma from the fracture


Explanation

DISCUSSION: If the neck is immobilized in excessive extension, it can be difficult for the patient to swallow. If the patient had injured the recurrent or superior laryngeal nerve at the time of the accident, it is likely to have manifested itself earlier on. Esophageal trauma or retropharyngeal edema or hematoma from the fracture also should have manifested itself earlier. Because the fracture was completely reduced, it is unlikely that moving the small fragment posteriorly would have injured the esophagus. REFERENCES: Garfin SR, Botte MJ, Waters RL, Nickel VL: Complications in the use of halo fixation device. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1986;68:320-325. Glaser JA, Whitehill R, Stamp WG, Jane JA: Complications associated with the halo-vest: A review of 245 cases. J Neurosurg 1986;65:762-769.

Question 3426

Topic: Pelvic & Acetabular Trauma
Figures 28a through 28c show the MRI scans of a 30-year-old woman who weighs 290 lb and has low back and left leg pain. She also reports frequent urinary dribbling, which her gynecologist has advised her may be related to obesity. Examination will most likely reveal
. ipsilateral weakness of the tibialis anterior.
. ipsilateral weakness of the peroneus longus and brevis.
. ipsilateral weakness of the extensor hallucis longus.
. a positive Beevor’s sign.
. a positive ipsilateral Gaenslen’s sign.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. ipsilateral weakness of the tibialis anterior.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The patient will most likely exhibit ipsilateral weakness of the tibialis anterior. Gaenslen’s test is designed to detect sacroiliac inflammation as a source of low back pain. Beevor’s sign tests the innervation of the rectus abdominis and paraspinal musculature (L1 innervation). The extensor hallucis longus is predominantly innervated by L5. The peroneals are predominantly innervated by S1. REFERENCES: Hoppenfeld S: Physical Examination of the Spine and Extremities. Appleton, WI, Century-Crofts, 1976. Hollinshead WH (ed): Anatomy for Surgeons: The Back and the Limbs, ed 3. Philadelphia, PA, Harper & Rowe, 1982.

Question 3427

Topic: Pelvic & Acetabular Trauma
Iliosacral screws placed for stabilization of posterior pelvic ring injuries (e.g., sacroiliac dislocation) that exit the sacrum anteriorly are most likely to injure which of the following structures?
. L4 nerve root
. L5 nerve root
. S1 nerve root
. Internal iliac artery
. External iliac artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. L5 nerve root


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Iliosacral screws have gained popularity for posterior stabilization of pelvic ring disruptions, but complications attributed to incorrect placement are a clinical problem. The L5 nerve root is at greatest risk and is in closest proximity to a malpositioned screw (exiting the sacrum). The L4 root is more anterior at this level. The S1 root is still intraosseous at this level and is at risk but not from the screw exiting anteriorly at this level. The arteries are at risk but are more anterior and are at less risk than the L5 nerve root. REFERENCE: Ebraheim NA, Haman SP, Xu R, Stanescu S, Yeasting RA: The lumbosacral nerves in relation to dorsal SI screw placement and their locations on plain radiographs. Orthopedics 2000;23:245-247.

Question 3428

Topic: 2. Trauma
A 56-year-old woman sustains a type IIIB open tibial shaft fracture. She undergoes irrigation and debridement and intramedullary nailing with flap coverage 24 hours later. Cultures are taken pre-debridement and post-debridement. She develops a surgical site infection at 6 weeks, which requires removing the hardware and placing an external fixator. Deep cultures are most likely to find pathogens found in
. pre-debridement cultures.
. post-debridement cultures.
. neither debridement culture.
. anaerobic specimens.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. neither debridement culture.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: One study found only 8% of organisms grown on pre-debridement cultures eventually caused infection; 7% of cases with negative pre-debridement cultures became infected. Of cases that did become infected, pre-debridement cultures grew the infecting organism only 22% of the time. Post-debridement cultures were more accurate in predicting infection. However, of cases that became infected, the infecting organism was present on post-debridement cultures only 42% of the time. It is concluded that pre-debridement and post-debridement bacterial cultures from open fracture wounds are of essentially no value. It is recommended that they not be done. In another study, before any interventions were performed, initial aerobic and anaerobic cultures of the wounds of 117 consecutive open extremity fractures grades I through III were obtained. The results of these cultures were correlated with the development of a wound infection. If an infection occurred, the organism grown from the infected wound was compared with any organism grown from the primary wound cultures. Of the initial cultures, 76% (89/117) did not demonstrate any growth, while the other 24% (28/117) only grew skin flora. There were only 7 (6%) wound infections, and 71% (5/7) initially did not grow any organisms. Of the isolates that grew from the initial cultures, none were the organisms that eventually led to infection.

Question 3429

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 34-year-old male arrives intubated with a closed head injury to the trauma bay after a motor vehicle accident. After initial hospital workup and resuscitation, he is transferred to the intensive care unit. In addition to multiple systemic injuries, he sustained the closed injury shown in Figure A. Intracompartmental pressure monitoring of the limb measure in a range from 28-30 mm Hg. Which of the following sustained blood pressure measurements would support the treatment of limb fasciotomy? Review Topic 1 110/60 mmHg 2 115/55 mmHg 3 92/64 mmHg

. both a and b
. a, b and c

Correct Answer & Explanation

. a, b and c


Explanation

A reported indication to perform fasciotomy includes an ICP measurement that is elevated to 30 mm Hg below the diastolic blood pressure. This would be the case if this patient's blood pressure was consistently around 115/55 mmHg (dBp=55; ICP=30; delta p = dBp-ICP = 25 mmHg).Given the poor outcomes associated with missed compartment syndromes, it is important to obtain both clinical and objective data when determining if a patient needs fasciotomies. A clinical assessment is the diagnostic cornerstone of acute compartment syndrome. However, the intracompartmental pressure measurement has been advocated to help confirm the diagnosis in patients where there remains uncertainty after clinical exam - especially with intubated patients. An absolute compartment pressure >30 mm Hg or a difference in diastolic pressure and compartments pressure (delta p) <30 mm Hg may help to confirm the necessity for fasciotomy.McQueen et al. prospectively reviewed 116 patients with tibia fractures that had continuous monitoring of their anterior compartment for 24 hours. They found that using an absolute pressure of 30 mmHg would have resulted in 50 patients (43%) treated with unnecessary fasciotomies. They conclude using a differential pressure of30 mmHg is a more reliable indicator of compartment syndrome.Olson et al. provide a review of compartment syndrome for the lower extremity. They discuss a variety of injuries and medical conditions that may initiate acute compartment syndrome, including fractures, bleeding disorders, and other trauma. Although the diagnosis is primarily a clinical one, they also recommend supplementation with compartment pressure measurements in equivocal cases.Figure A shows a closed comminuted tibial shaft fracture. Incorrect Answers:

Question 3430

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 13-year-old girl sustained an isolated midshaft left femoral fracture in a motor vehicle accident. The fracture was treated with a rigid, antegrade intramedullary nail placed through the piriformis fossa. The fracture healed uneventfully, as shown in Figure 46a; however, at 12 months postoperatively she now reports left hip pain. A current AP radiograph and MRI scan are shown in Figures 46b and 46c. What complication occurred in this patient? Review Topic

. Chondrolysis
. Ischemic necrosis of the femoral head
. Ischemic necrosis of the greater trochanter
. Femoral neck fracture
. Trochanteric overgrowth

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ischemic necrosis of the femoral head


Explanation

The development of femoral head ischemic necrosis is the iatrogenically created complication in this skeletally immature patient. Placement of a rigid, antegrade intramedullary nail through the piriformis fossa is likely to damage the vascular supply to the femoral head as the vessels ascend the femoral neck on the way to the femoral head. The MRI scan reveals ischemic necrosis with early collapse of the femoral head. The joint space is preserved on the MRI scan, ruling out chondrolysis.

Question 3431

Topic: 2. Trauma

When treating a proximal tibia fracture, the surgeon decides to (1) use blocking screws in the proximal fragment, and (2) pick the intramedullary nail based on the location of the Herzog curve. Which of the following combinations will best prevent the classic deformity associated with this fracture?

. Place blocking screws medial and posterior to the nail. Use a nail with a Herzog curve proximal to the fracture site.
. Place blocking screws medial and posterior to the nail. Use a nail with a Herzog curve distal to the fracture site.
. Place blocking screws lateral and posterior to the nail. Use a nail with a Herzog curve proximal to the fracture site.
. Place blocking screws lateral and posterior to the nail. Use a nail with a Herzog curve distal to the fracture site.
. Place blocking screws lateral and anterior to the nail. Use a nail with a Herzog curve proximal to the fracture site.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Place blocking screws medial and posterior to the nail. Use a nail with a Herzog curve proximal to the fracture site.


Explanation

Proximal tibial fractures develop an apex anterior (procurvatum) and valgus malalignment. Blocking (poller) screws should be placed in the concavity of the deformity, thus posterior and lateral to the nail. The Herzog curve should be proximal to the fracture site.Up to 58% of proximal tibial fractures are malaligned. Malalignment arises because the nail fits loosely in the wide metaphyses and cannot control alignment. Without close fit of the nail at the fracture site, the nail will not align the fracture independent of a stable reduction and careful nail path. Blocking screws serve to reduce the size of the proximal metaphyseal canal and guide final nail passage.Stinner et al. discuss strategies in proximal tibial fracture nailing. They describe an accurate starting point (using the twin peaks AP view or fibular bisector AP view, and flat plateau lateral view). They emphasize fracture reduction prior to reaming and implant placement.Hiesterman reviewed nailing of extra-articular proximal tibial fractures. Techniques described include blocking screws, unicortical plating, using a universal distractor, nailing in flexion/locking in extension, semiextended nailing (including percutaneous suprapatellar quads-splitting approaches), multiple proximal interlocking screws (>=3).Illustration A shows placement of a coronal blocking screw. Illustration B shows placement of a sagittal blocking screw. Illustration C shows the effect of the Herzog curve. A more distal Herzog curve leads to a "wedge" effect and fracture displacement whereas a proximal Herzog curve contains the fracture. The "wedge" effect occurs as the nail is seated and impinges on the posterior cortex of the distal segment accentuating an apex anterior deformity because of the effective widening of the nail above the bend and posterior force on the distal segment to match the nail shape.Incorrect Answers:

Question 3432

Topic: 2. Trauma
An 82-year-old woman fell on her right shoulder 2 days ago. She is alert, oriented, and in mild discomfort. Prior to falling, she lived alone and functioned independently. Examination reveals extensive ecchymosis extending to the midhumeral region. Her neurovascular examination is normal. Radiographs are shown in Figures 41a and 41b. What is the most appropriate management?
. Surgical fixation with percutaneous pins
. Surgical fixation with a hemiarthroplasty with tuberosity repair
. Surgical fixation with a total shoulder arthroplasty
. Sling immobilization for 6 weeks followed by active range of motion
. Sling immobilization with daily pendulum exercises

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Surgical fixation with a hemiarthroplasty with tuberosity repair


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The patient has a displaced four-part proximal humerus fracture. Given her age and the presence of osteopenia, a cemented hemiarthroplasty is the treatment of choice. The glenoid is uninjured so a total shoulder arthroplasty is not indicated. Percutaneous pinning in younger individuals with good bone quality may be indicated but not in an 82-year-old woman with osteopenia. Sling immobilization and immediate pendulum exercises will lead to a nonunion. Sling immobilization for 6 weeks followed by active range of motion will result in a nonunion or malunion with unacceptable functional results. REFERENCES: Neer CS II: Displaced proximal humeral fractures: I. Classification and evaluation. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1970;52:1077-1089. Bigliani LU, Flatow EL, Pollock RG: Fractures of the proximal humerus, in Rockwood CA Jr, Matsen FA III (eds): Rockwood and Matsen The Shoulder, ed 2. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1998, pp 352-354.

Question 3433

Topic: 2. Trauma
A 21-year-old male construction worker fell from a roof and sustained an injury to his left foot. Radiographs and CT scans are shown in Figures 24a through 24e. Compared to nonsurgical management, surgical treatment offers which of the following advantages?
. Quicker return to activities
. Quicker return to work
. Increased subtalar joint range of motion
. Decreased risk of nonunion
. Decreased risk of posttraumatic arthritis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Decreased risk of posttraumatic arthritis


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The radiographs and CT scans show a displaced intra-articular calcaneal fracture, with loss of calcaneal height and length. Recent multicenter, randomized, prospective studies suggest that surgical treatment of displaced intra-articular calcaneal fractures is associated with an almost six-fold decrease in the risk of posttraumatic subtalar arthritis (necessitating subtalar arthrodesis) compared to nonsurgical treatment. Despite ongoing controversy, surgical treatment has not been shown to be advantageous with respect to activity, time to return to work, or subtalar joint range of motion. A nonunion of a calcaneal fracture is exceedingly rare regardless of the treatment method.

Question 3434

Topic: 2. Trauma
The condition seen in Figure 60 is attributable to
. improper nail placement.
. wrong implant choice.
. patient noncompliance.
. radius of the curvature of the implant.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. radius of the curvature of the implant.


Explanation

Cephalomedullary implants for treatment of proximal femur fractures have gained in popularity over the last decade. Although these implants have improved outcomes for certain fracture types, multiple complications are associated with this implant. Failure may occur secondary to implant design (for example, mismatch of curvature of the nail to the femur, which can result in distal anterior cortical perforation).

Question 3435

Topic: 2. Trauma
The radiograph shown in Figure 54 reveals that the plate on the second metacarpal is acting in what manner?
. Compression plate
. Tension band plate
. Bridge plate
. Buttress plate
. Spring plate

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Bridge plate


Explanation

There are four ways in which a plate acts: compression, tension band, bridge or spanning, and buttress. Since there is no cortical contact with the large span of comminution, this plate is acting as a bridge plate. A bridge plate is defined as when the plate is used as an extramedullary splint attached to the two main fragments, leaving the comminution untouched.

Question 3436

Topic: 2. Trauma
A 12-year-old girl is seen after tripping and twisting her ankle earlier in the morning. She had immediate pain and swelling and was unable to bear weight. Radiographs are shown in Figures 80a through 80c. Appropriate treatment should consist of which of the following?
. Short leg cast with no weight bearing for the first 3 weeks
. Short leg cast with immediate weight bearing
. Long leg cast with no weight bearing for the first 3 weeks
. Open reduction and internal fixation, avoiding the physeal growth plate and joint
. CAM walker with immediate weight bearing

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Open reduction and internal fixation, avoiding the physeal growth plate and joint


Explanation

Salter-Harris III and IV fractures of the medial malleolus often contain a large cartilaginous portion, larger than the apparent ossified fragment seen on radiographs. Consequently, articular incongruity is common. As such, open reduction and internal fixation is often required. Growth disturbance and angular deformity are also common complications of Salter-Harris III and IV fractures of the distal tibia.

Question 3437

Topic: 2. Trauma
Figures 35a through 35c show the clinical photograph and radiographs of a 15-year-old boy who stubbed his toe 1 day ago while walking barefoot in the yard. Management should consist of
. buddy taping of the great toe to the second toe for 3 weeks and use of a hard-soled shoe.
. buddy taping of the great toe to the second toe for 3 weeks and application of a short leg cast.
. buddy taping of the great toe to the second toe for 3 weeks, use of a hard-soled shoe, and a short course of antibiotics.
. nail removal in the emergency department, buddy taping of the great toe to the second toe for 3 weeks, and use of a hard-soled shoe.
. irrigation and open reduction, with or without fixation, and a short course of antibiotics.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. irrigation and open reduction, with or without fixation, and a short course of antibiotics.


Explanation

The patient has an open fracture of the physis of the distal phalanx with a portion of the nail bed interposed in the physis. Seymour initially described this injury in the distal phalanges of fingers. Optimal treatment consists of removing the interposed tissue, irrigating the fracture, and a short course of antibiotics. The nail should be preserved to provide stability.

Question 3438

Topic: 2. Trauma
Treatment of an atrophic nonunion of the radial diaphysis should include which of the following?
. Ilizarov fixation
. Electrical stimulation
. Ultrasound bone stimulator
. Plate exchange with autogenous cancellous grafting
. Plate exchange with ulnar shortening osteotomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Plate exchange with autogenous cancellous grafting


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Atrophic nonunions of the radius and ulna are fairly rare with modern techniques of fixation; the few reports that have been published have discussed the use of structural corticocancellous bone grafts for the treatment of atrophic nonunions. The referenced study by Ring et al noted a 100% healing rate and improved patient reported outcomes with 3.5-mm plate-and-screw fixation and autogenous cancellous bone-grafting for atrophic forearm nonunions.

Question 3439

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 15-year-old girl sustained the injury shown in Figures 70a and 70b when she jumped from the back of a moving truck. She is seen in the emergency department 2 hours after her injury. She has no other injuries. Her foot is warm and she has a normal motor and sensory examination. Pulses are only evident on Doppler. What is the most appropriate management? Review Topic

. MRI scan of the knee
. CT scan of the distal femur
. Application of a long-leg cast
. Arteriogram of the extremity
. Reduction and fixation of the fracture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Reduction and fixation of the fracture


Explanation

The radiographs reveal a distal femoral fracture that is often associated with a neurovascular injury at the level of the fracture. Initial treatment should be to reduce the fracture, stabilize it, and then reevaluate the extremity for neurovascular function. A CT scan, arteriogram, or MRI scan would not help and would delay treatment. A cast would not be appropriate because access to the extremity is necessary and it would not provide stabilization for vascular repair if it is required.

Question 3440

Topic: 2. Trauma
In the treatment of intra-articular calcaneal fractures, surgical reduction and fixation has been shown to have improved outcomes over nonoperative treatment in all of the following patient groups EXCEPT:
. Sedentary job
. Sanders IIb fractures
. Women
. Younger age (<29 years old)
. Previous calcaneus fracture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Women


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The referenced study by Buckley et al is a prospective study of intra-articular calcaneus fractures at several trauma centers. They found that overall, the outcomes after nonoperative treatment were not different from those after operative treatment. However, when stratifying groups, women who were managed operatively scored significantly higher on the SF-36 than did women who were managed nonoperatively. Also, patients who were less than twenty-nine years old, had a Böhler angle of 0 degrees to 14 degrees, a comminuted fracture, or a light workload did better after surgery compared with those who were treated nonoperatively.