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Question 3401

Topic: 2. Trauma
A patient sustains a comminuted calcaneus fracture. Three months after the injury the patient complains of shoewear problems secondary to clawing of the lesser toes. What is the most likely explanation for this deformity?
. Sural nerve injury
. Tethering of the flexor hallucis longus by fracture fragments
. Medial plantar nerve neuropathy
. Weakness of the tibialis posterior
. Unrecognized foot compartment syndrome

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Unrecognized foot compartment syndrome


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Contracture of the intrinsic flexor muscles of the foot can be the result of unrecognized foot compartment syndrome. Foot compartment syndrome is a known complication of calcaneus fractures. Myerson reported 3/43 patients in his series had chronic foot compartment syndrome. There are 9 compartments in the foot: (1) medial, (2) superficial, (3) lateral, (4) adductor, (5-8) four interossei, and (9) calcaneal. The plantar fascia limits the space available for hematoma and swelling, causing damage to the intrinsic flexors of the foot (particularly the lumbricals and interossei), resulting in clawtoes.

Question 3402

Topic: 2. Trauma
When compared with reamed intramedullary nailing for an unstable diaphyseal tibia fracture, unreamed nailing is associated with which of the following?
. Longer surgical times
. Higher infection rates
. Lower functional outcome scores
. Similar union rates in open fractures
. Higher incidence of pulmonary complications

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Similar union rates in open fractures


Explanation

The Investigators Randomized Trial of Reamed versus Non-Reamed Intramedullary Nailing of Tibial Shaft Fractures (SPRINT) study, a large, randomized, controlled trial, has shown a benefit of reamed intramedullary (IM) nailing versus unreamed IM nailing for closed tibial shaft fractures with regard to reoperation rates. No such association exists for open tibial fractures; ie, union rates are the same for open fractures. The infection rates are the same, as is functional outcome, and surgical time is potentially shorter for unreamed nails. The potential pulmonary benefits from unreamed nailing have never been clinically proven.

Question 3403

Topic: 2. Trauma

During placement of an external fixator for a distal radius fracture, the most commonly injured nerve is a branch of which of the following nerves? Review Topic

. Ulnar
. Median
. Superficial radial
. Lateral antebrachial cutaneous
. Medial antebrachial cutaneous

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Superficial radial


Explanation

Pin track infections and sensory injuries are among the most common complications of external fixation for distal radius fractures. The proximal pins of most distal radius external fixators are placed in the “bare area” of the distal radius, about four finger-breadths above the radial styloid. This corresponds to the area where the dorsal sensory branch of the radial nerve penetrates the fascia dorsal to the brachioradialis tendon to become a subcutaneous structure. Injury to the superficial radial nerve may produce painful dysesthesias and neuromas.(SBQ12TR.106) A 67-year-old female sustains the injury shown in Figure A after a trip and fall. When discussing the outcomes of surgery with the patient, which of the following statements is true?Post-surgical mortality rates are significantly lower after total hip arthroplasty compared to hemiarthroplastyInternal fixation shows better outcomes (reoperation rate, functional status, and/or complication rates) compared to arthroplastyBipolar hemiarthroplasty shows better outcomes (reoperation rate, functional status, and/or complication rates) compared to unipolar hemiarthroplastyA delay in surgery greater than 48 hours is recommended if the patient has multiple medical comorbiditiesm which are not fully optimizedDislocation rates are equivalent between total hip arthroplasty and hemiarthroplastyModerate evidence supports that hip fracture surgery within 48 hours of admission is associated with better outcomes. However, patients with significant medical comorbidity should be fully optimized before surgery.Although several studies have shown a benefit to surgery within 48 hours, no definitive time frame has been elucidated. The majority of literature has shown improved outcomes in regards to pain, complications, and length of stay with early surgery. Patients with significant medical comorbidities have been shown to have the highest mortality rates.Moran et al. aimed to determine whether a delay in surgery for hip fractures had an affect on postoperative mortality among elderly patients. In an observational study of 2660 patients, they showed that mortality following hip fracture surgery was 9% at 30-days, 19% at 90-days, and 30% at 12-months. Patients with medical comorbidities had 2.5 times the risk of death within 30-days of surgery. In addition, individuals who had surgery delayed beyond 4 days had increased mortality at 90-days and 12-months.Papakostidis et al. examined the timing of internal fixation of intracapsular fractures of the neck of femur on the development of late complications, particularly osteonecrosis of femoral head (ONFH) and non-union. They showed no benefit ofearly surgery on incidence of AVN. However, delay of internal fixation of more than24 hours showed increased rates of non-union.Figure A shows a displaced right femoral neck fracture. Incorrect Answers:

Question 3404

Topic: 2. Trauma

An otherwise healthy 25-year-old man with an isolated closed mid-diaphyseal femoral fracture undergoes intramedullary nailing. Compared with nonreamed nailing, reamed femoral nailing is associated with a higher rate of Review Topic

. union.
. symptomatic pulmonary complications.
. infection.
. transfusion requirements.
. required secondary procedures.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. union.


Explanation

Bhandari and associates, in a meta-analysis, concluded that sufficient evidence exists to suggest that reamed intramedullary nailing of lower extremity long bone fractures significantly reduces rates of nonunion and implant failure in comparison with nonreamed nailing. Tornetta and Tiburzi, in a prospective randomized study, determined that reamed canal preparation led to faster healing of distal fractures treated with statically locked intramedullary nails. Blood loss was greater in the reamed group, but this did not translate into increased transfusion requirements. In this series, there was no advantage to nail insertion without reaming. In a prospective randomized multicenter study, the overall incidence of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) was found to be low with primary stabilization of femoral shaft fractures with intramedullary nailing. There was no difference in the incidence of ARDS between the reamed and unreamed groups. In a retrospective study performed by Handolin and associates, intramedullary nailing of long bone fractures in patients with multiple injuries and with a coexisting pulmonary contusion did not impair pulmonary function or outcome. No study has convincingly demonstrated an increased trend toward infection with reamed femoral intramedullary nailing.

Question 3405

Topic: 2. Trauma

During a primary total hip arthroplasty using the direct anterior approach (DAA), the femur is prepared by extending, externally rotating, and adducting the leg. If excessive force is applied during femoral elevation using a bone hook without adequate capsular and short external rotator release, what is the most common iatrogenic fracture?

. Greater trochanter fracture
. Lesser trochanter fracture
. Calcar split fracture
. Distal femur spiral fracture
. Anterior cortical perforation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Greater trochanter fracture


Explanation

In the direct anterior approach, achieving adequate femoral exposure requires displacing the femur anteriorly and laterally. As the femur is externally rotated and elevated, the greater trochanter moves posteriorly towards the ilium/posterior acetabulum. Without adequate release of the superior/posterior capsule and short external rotators (like the piriformis), excessive force with the femoral hook causes the greater trochanter to impinge, leading to a fracture of the greater trochanter.

Question 3406

Topic: 2. Trauma
A 28-year-old male sustains a closed, isolated, completely displaced fracture of the talar neck (Hawkins Type III). He undergoes urgent open reduction and internal fixation. At 8 weeks postoperatively, a distinct subchondral radiolucent band is visible across the talar dome on the mortise radiograph. What does this radiographic finding indicate?
. Impending collapse of the talar dome due to established osteonecrosis
. Infection of the talar body
. Vascular viability of the talar body
. Nonunion of the talar neck fracture
. Chondrolysis of the tibiotalar joint

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Vascular viability of the talar body


Explanation

The finding described is the Hawkins sign. It is a subchondral radiolucency in the talar dome that typically appears 6 to 8 weeks after injury. It represents subchondral osteopenia secondary to disuse and active hyperemia, which requires intact vascularity. Thus, a positive Hawkins sign is a highly reliable indicator that the talar body is viable and that widespread avascular necrosis (AVN) will not occur.

Question 3407

Topic: 2. Trauma

A 22-year-old collegiate basketball player sustains a fracture of the proximal fifth metatarsal. Radiographs show a transverse fracture line located 1.5 cm distal to the tuberosity, extending into the fourth-fifth intermetatarsal articulation (Zone 2, Jones fracture). The high risk of nonunion in this specific fracture pattern is primarily attributed to the vascular anatomy of the fifth metatarsal. Which of the following accurately describes the blood supply rendering this area vulnerable?

. The entire base is supplied by a single retrograde branch from the deep plantar arch
. It is a vascular watershed area between the metaphyseal arteries and the diaphyseal nutrient artery
. The nutrient artery enters the lateral cortex and is reliably ruptured by the fracture displacement
. The dense ligamentous attachments strip the periosteum, eliminating the primary blood supply
. The intramedullary blood supply flows strictly from distal to proximal, bypassing Zone 2

Correct Answer & Explanation

. It is a vascular watershed area between the metaphyseal arteries and the diaphyseal nutrient artery


Explanation

A true Jones fracture (Zone 2) occurs at the metaphyseal-diaphyseal junction of the fifth metatarsal. This specific region is a vascular watershed area. The tuberosity (Zone 1) is richly supplied by metaphyseal arteries, and the diaphysis (Zone 3) is supplied by the nutrient artery (which enters medially and branches proximally and distally). Zone 2 lies at the tenuous junction of these two blood supplies, making it highly susceptible to delayed union or nonunion.

Question 3408

Topic: 2. Trauma

In the setting of a revision Total Hip Arthroplasty, pelvic discontinuity represents a severe challenge. Which of the following anatomically defines a pelvic discontinuity?

. Separation of the superior pelvis (ilium) from the inferior pelvis (ischium and pubis) through the acetabulum
. Loss of the medial acetabular wall with intrapelvic cup migration
. Disruption of the pubic symphysis with an associated sacral fracture
. Complete destruction of the anterior column with an intact posterior column
. Avulsion of the ischial tuberosity combined with a superior pubic ramus fracture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Separation of the superior pelvis (ilium) from the inferior pelvis (ischium and pubis) through the acetabulum


Explanation

Pelvic discontinuity is defined as a complete transverse separation of the superior hemipelvis (ilium) from the inferior hemipelvis (ischium and pubis) resulting from an ununited fracture or severe bone loss directly through the acetabulum. Treatment usually requires complex reconstruction such as custom triflange implants, cup-cage constructs, or distraction osteogenesis to bridge the defect.

Question 3409

Topic: 2. Trauma
Radiographs of an 80-year-old woman with back pain reveal a compression fracture. Which of the following imaging studies best evaluates the acuity of the fracture?
. Triple phase bone scan
. T1-weighted MRI scan
. Short tau inversion recovery (STIR)-weighted MRI scan
. CT
. Standing lateral radiograph

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Short tau inversion recovery (STIR)-weighted MRI scan


Explanation

The best method of evaluating the acuity of osteoporotic compression fractures is to look for edema in the vertebral body. This is best accomplished with a STIR-weighted MRI scan. Bone scans can show increased uptake at the site of fracture for many months after the fracture. T1-weighted MRI scans show loss of normal marrow fat that may not necessarily correspond with acuity of the fracture. CT scans and radiographs show fracture deformity but cannot be used to judge acuity.

Question 3410

Topic: 2. Trauma

Figures 59a and 59b are the radiographs of a 7-year-old boy who was seen 1 week after he underwent a closed reduction and casting in the emergency department after a fall on an outstretched arm. What is the most appropriate next step for this patient? Review Topic

. Observation
. Repeat closed reduction and casting
. Open reduction and plate fixation
. Closed reduction and intramedullary nail fixation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Observation


Explanation

This child's radiograph shows an acceptably reduced fracture of both the radius and ulna. Generally accepted limits of shaft angulation for cast treatment for girls 8 years of age or younger and boys age 10 or younger are 20 degrees for distal-third, 15 degrees for middle-third, and 10 degrees for proximal-third fractures. Remodeling decreases as one goes from distal to proximal in the forearm. Unless the child's fracture deviates from these criteria, surgical treatment is not necessary. Because of the risk of displacement, however, close follow-up is recommended.

Question 3411

Topic: 2. Trauma
A 19-year-old female long-distance runner has an incomplete tension-side femoral neck stress fracture. Management should consist of
. limited weight bearing for 6 weeks, followed by a progressive return to activity.
. no weight bearing for 6 weeks, followed by no running for 6 months.
. no weight bearing for 2 weeks, followed by internal fixation if symptoms persist.
. internal fixation at the time of diagnosis.
. cessation of running for 6 weeks.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. internal fixation at the time of diagnosis.


Explanation

Unlike compression-side stress fractures, tension-side stress fractures on the superior side of the femoral neck are at a very high risk of displacement, even if the patient is not bearing weight. It is highly recommended to treat these fractures like acute fractures and to proceed with internal fixation emergently. Once the fracture has displaced, the prognosis is poor in terms of returning to sports, even when reduced and internally fixed. Nonsurgical management, such as limited weight bearing and low-impact activities, works very well for other lower extremity stress fractures. A training program evaluation (shoes, tracks, schedule) is always indicated for all patients with stress fractures.

Question 3412

Topic: 2. Trauma

A fracture in the following location is most commonly associated with procurvatum and valgus malalignment?

. Humeral shaft
. Distal femur
. Proximal tibia
. Distal third tibia shaft with intact fibula
. Subtrochanteric proximal femur

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Proximal tibia


Explanation

Fractures of the proximal tibial shaft are associated with high rates of valgus and apex anterior (procurvatum) malalignment.Proximal third tibial shaft fractures are often difficult to reduce anatomically due to the tendency for both valgus and flexion deformity at the fracture site. Many different techniques have been devised to overcome the deforming forces. These include (1) Poller blocking screws posterior and lateral to the intramedullary nail (IMN), (2) utilizing a semiextended knee position during IMN of proximal tibia fractures (3) use of a suprapatellar approach for IMN, (4) usage of a slightly more lateral starting point during conventional IMN, and (5) application of unicortical plate.Ricci et al. describe the technique and results of using blocking screws and intramedullary nails to treat patients with fractures of the proximal third of the tibia. Post-operatively, all patients in their series had less than 5 degrees of angular deformity in the planes in which blocking screws were used to control alignment. At 6 months follow-up, 10/11 patients maintained this alignment.Illustration A shows intra-operative sagittal radiographs of the proximal tibia. Note the use of Poller blocking screws in the posterior and lateral aspects of the proximal tibia.Incorrect Answers:

Question 3413

Topic: 2. Trauma
Which of the following is a recognized predictor of mortality after hip fracture?
. American Society of Anesthesiologist (ASA) classification
. Post-operative weight bearing status
. Fracture comminution
. Fixation device used
. Hip fracture type

Correct Answer & Explanation

. American Society of Anesthesiologist (ASA) classification


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The ASA classification (detailed in Illustration A) was initially developed in 1963 and has been shown to be predictive of post-surgical mortality in hip fracture patients. Basic categories are as follows: 1= normal, healthy; 2= mild systemic disease; 3= severe systemic disease, not incapacitating; 4= severe incapacitating systemic condition, constant threat to life; 5= moribund patient; 6 = brain dead, organs being donated. The study by Richmond et al looked at 836 patients treated for a hip fracture and found that this injury is not associated with significant excess mortality amongst patients older than age 85. However, in younger patients, those with ASA classifications of 3 or 4 have significant excess mortality following hip fracture that persists up to 2 years after injury.

Question 3414

Topic: 2. Trauma
  • Figure 12 shows the frog-lateral radiograph of a 45-year-old man who has a painful left hip. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. traumatic femoral head fracture
. osteonecrosis
. osteoarthritis
. neuropathic joint
. rheumatoid arthritis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. osteonecrosis


Explanation

PHASE V: the crescent sign and articular collapse. The supporting bony architecture may become sufficiently weakened by continued resorption of trabecular bone and subchondral bone plate along the reactive interface that the stress of weight-bearing can result in subchondral bone plate fracture with focal articular cartilage buckling and eventual collapse. This is best seen in the frog-lateral radiograph.

Question 3415

Topic: Pelvic & Acetabular Trauma
In patients with Crowe types III and IV developmental dysplasia of the hip with high hip centers, acetabular reconstruction often requires lowering the acetabular component into the native acetabulum. In doing so, considerable risk for limb lengthening beyond 4 cm exists, making the hip difficult to reduce and raising the risk for nerve injury. Which technique is used to overcome this problem?
. Subtrochanteric osteotomy with femoral shortening
. An offset femoral component
. A lateralized liner
. Extended trochanteric osteotomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Subtrochanteric osteotomy with femoral shortening


Explanation

DISCUSSION: When substantial lengthening of a dysplastic hip will occur because a high dislocation is relocated into a considerably lower acetabulum, a femoral shortening may be necessary to reduce the hip and avoid a stretch injury to the sciatic nerve. No other choice specifically addresses the need for femoral shortening, and high offset stems and lateralized liners may exacerbate the problem if used alone and without femoral shortening.

Question 3416

Topic: 2. Trauma
An 11-year-old basketball player reports that he felt a painful pop in the left knee when he stumbled while running. He is unable to bear weight on the extremity and cannot actively extend the knee against gravity. Examination reveals a large knee effusion. A lateral radiograph is shown in Figure 7. Management should consist of
. physical therapy for quadriceps strengthening exercises.
. a long leg cast with the knee fully extended.
. excision of the fragment.
. suture reattachment of the patellar tendon to the tibial tuberosity.
. open reduction and tension band fixation.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. open reduction and tension band fixation.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The radiograph shows an avulsion fracture, or “sleeve fracture,” of the distal pole of the patella. The distal fragment is much larger than it appears on the radiograph because it largely consists of cartilage; therefore, excision of the fragment is contraindicated. The treatment of choice is open reduction and tension band fixation to correct patella alta and restore the extensor mechanism. REFERENCES: Maguire JK, Canale ST: Fractures of the patella in children and adolescents. J Pediatr Orthop 1993;13:567-571. Grogan DP, Carey TP, Leffers D, et al: Avulsion fractures of the patella. J Pediatr Orthop 1990;10:721-730.

Question 3417

Topic: 2. Trauma
An 18-year-old man sustained closed humeral shaft and forearm fractures of his dominant arm in a motor vehicle accident. Neurovascular examination is intact, and his condition is stable. The best course of action for management of the injuries should be
. external fixation of the forearm fracture and functional bracing of the humeral shaft fracture.
. external fixation of both fractures.
. open reduction and internal fixation of both fractures.
. open reduction and the internal fixation of the forearm fracture and functional bracing of the humeral shaft fracture.
. application of a long arm cast.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. open reduction and the internal fixation of the forearm fracture and functional bracing of the humeral shaft fracture.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Fractures above and below the elbow constitute floating elbow injuries and are best treated with internal fixation to allow early range of motion and to prevent elbow stiffness. Use of a long arm cast would promote elbow stiffness. External fixation is indicated primarily for open injuries. REFERENCES: Beaty JH (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 6. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1999, pp 271-286. Bell MJ, Beachamp CG, Kellam JK, McMurtry RY: The results of plating humeral shaft fractures in patients with multiple injuries: The Sunnybrook experience. J Bone Joint Surg Br 1985;67:293-296.

Question 3418

Topic: 2. Trauma

The patient decides to pursue surgical intervention. Which compartments should be released?

. Anterior and lateral
. Anterior, lateral, and deep posterior
. Anterior, lateral and superficial posterior
. Lateral and superficial posterior

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior and lateral


Explanation

The diagnostic criteria for chronic exertional compartment syndrome is pressure >15 mm Hg at rest, or>30 mm Hg at 1 minute post exercise, or >20 mm Hg at 5 minutes post-exercise. The anterior and lateral compartments are the only ones that meet strict diagnostic criteria for chronic exertional compartment syndrome. The superficial posterior compartment, although close to meeting criteria, is not responsiblefor the patient's symptoms and falls below current thresholds for diagnosis.

Question 3419

Topic: 2. Trauma
A 35-year-old male sustains a closed tibial shaft fracture after falling from 12 feet. Which of the following measurements would be concerning for an evolving compartment syndrome?
. Preoperative anterior compartment measurement of 29, with diastolic pressure 58
. Preoperative anterior compartment measurement of 25, with diastolic pressure of 60
. Intraoperative anterior compartment measurement of 25, with intraoperative diastolic pressure of 54
. Intraoperative anterior compartment measurement of 28, with intraoperative diastolic pressure of 72
. Preoperative anterior compartment measurement of 22, with mean arterial pressure of 70

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Intraoperative anterior compartment measurement of 28, with intraoperative diastolic pressure of 72


Explanation

DISCUSSION: A delta P (diastolic blood pressure minus compartment pressure measurement) of < 30 mmHg is an indication for fasciotomies with the caveat that the diastolic pressure is measured either pre- or postoperatively. Given the poor outcomes associated with missed compartment syndromes, it is important to obtain both clinical and objective data when determining if a patient needs fasciotomies. Determining if a patient needs fasciotomies in the operating room while a patient is under anesthesia is complicated by the fact that obtaining a clinical exam is impossible, and that the diastolic blood pressure may be falsely decreased compared to normal pre- or postoperative measurements. Currently, it is recommended that intraoperative compartment pressures be compared to preoperative diastolic blood pressures, with delta p < 30 indicating the need for fasciotomies. Kakar et al. review the preoperative, intraoperative, and postoperative diastolic blood pressure (DBP) in 242 patients with a tibia fracture treated operatively. They found the mean DBP was 18 points lower in the operating room compared to the preoperative measurement. In addition, they found the difference between preoperative and postoperative diastolic blood pressures to be within 2 points, indicating the decrease seen intraoperatively is likely a spurious value induced by anesthetic. McQueen and Court-Brown prospectively review 116 patients with tibia fractures that had continuous monitoring of their anterior compartment for 24 hours. They found that using an absolute pressure of 30 mmHg would have resulted in 50 patients (43%) treated with unnecessary fasciotomies. They conclude using a differential pressure of 30 mmHg is a more reliable indicator of compartment syndrome.

Question 3420

Topic: 2. Trauma
Assuming that the fracture shown in this radiograph (Figure 1) is aligned on the anteroposterior radiograph and heals in this position, secondary to fracture malalignment, there will be loss of active
. metacarpophalangeal (MP) joint extension.
. proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint extension.
. MP flexion.
. PIP joint flexion.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint extension.


Explanation

EXPLANATION: This is a transverse proximal phalanx fracture with apex volar angulation. The fracture displaces into an apex volar angulated position under the pull of the central slip on the distal fragment and the interossei insertions at the base of proximal phalanx. Although it is possible to lose motion in flexion or extension of the MP or PIP joints, the biomechanics will not allow full extension of the PIP joint. If allowed to heal in apex palmar malunion, the predicted corresponding extensor lags are for a 10-degree lag at 16 degrees of angular deformity, a 24-degree lag at 27 degrees of deformity, and a 66-degree lag at 46 degrees of deformity. These fractures usually can be treated with closed reduction with or without percutaneous pinning. With surgical treatment, there may be loss of motion both at the MP and PIP joints.