Question 161
Topic: Pelvic & Acetabular TraumaCorrect Answer & Explanation
. Posterior sacroiliac ligament
Practice Set 9 of 35
This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in Pelvic & Acetabular Trauma. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
. Posterior sacroiliac ligament
. Posterior sacroiliac ligament
A 35-year-old male sustains an anteroposterior compression (APC-II) pelvic ring injury following a motorcycle collision. Based on the Young-Burgess classification, which of the following posterior pelvic ligaments remains intact by definition in this injury pattern?
. Anterior sacroiliac ligament
. More than 75% pain reduction following fluoroscopically guided SI joint injection.
. False profile
. Ganz periacetabular
. L5 nerve root
. Subtrochanteric osteotomy with femoral shortening
. Need for transfusion
. Percutaneous iliosacral screw placement
Figure 92 is the radiograph of a 45-year-old man who was thrown from his horse and now reports groin pain. Which of the following is the most common long-term sequelae of this injury?

. Gait abnormality
. Less than 2%
Figure 33a shows a line drawing of a normal hemipelvis. The anterior acetabular rim is bold. Figure 33b illustrates a hemipelvis with a crossover sign, which is indicative of what acetabular pathology? Review Topic

. Low acetabular index
. inadequate anterior and posterior coverage
. Internal pudendal artery
Proper placement of a pelvic binder for a hemodynamically unstable patient with an anteroposterior compression (APC) type pelvic ring injury is centered at the level of the:
. Anterior superior iliac spines
. Anterior sacroiliac, sacrotuberous, and sacrospinous ligaments
. Iliolumbar ligaments
. L5
. Stage III