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Question 181

Topic: Pelvic & Acetabular Trauma
According to the Young-Burgess classification, an anteroposterior compression type II (APC-II) pelvic ring injury is characterized by the disruption of the symphysis pubis and which of the following posterior structures?
. Intact anterior sacroiliac (SI) ligaments and disrupted posterior SI ligaments
. Disrupted anterior SI ligaments, intact posterior SI ligaments, and disrupted sacrotuberous/sacrospinous ligaments
. Disrupted anterior and posterior SI ligaments, with intact sacrotuberous ligaments
. Disrupted posterior SI ligaments with intact sacrotuberous and sacrospinous ligaments
. Completely intact posterior pelvic ring ligaments

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Disrupted anterior SI ligaments, intact posterior SI ligaments, and disrupted sacrotuberous/sacrospinous ligaments


Explanation

In an APC-II injury, there is widening of the symphysis pubis > 2.5 cm, with tearing of the anterior sacroiliac (SI) ligaments, sacrotuberous, and sacrospinous ligaments. The posterior SI ligaments remain intact, providing vertical stability but allowing rotational instability ('open book'). An APC-III injury involves disruption of both anterior and posterior SI ligaments.

Question 182

Topic: Pelvic & Acetabular Trauma
A 45-year-old male sustains a severe pelvic ring injury after a crush accident. Radiographs reveal an anteroposterior compression (APC) injury. According to the Young-Burgess classification, which finding differentiates an APC III injury from an APC II injury?
. Symphyseal diastasis greater than 2.5 cm
. Rupture of the anterior sacroiliac, sacrotuberous, and sacrospinous ligaments
. Complete disruption of the posterior sacroiliac ligament complex
. Vertical displacement of the hemipelvis
. Associated vascular injury in the retroperitoneum

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Complete disruption of the posterior sacroiliac ligament complex


Explanation

An APC II injury involves disruption of the anterior sacroiliac ligaments with an intact posterior SI hinge. An APC III injury implies complete dissociation of the hemipelvis due to concurrent disruption of the robust posterior sacroiliac ligaments, severely increasing pelvic volume and instability.

Question 183

Topic: Pelvic & Acetabular Trauma
A trauma patient presents with a pelvic ring injury after a motor vehicle collision. Radiographs and CT demonstrate a vertically oriented fracture through the sacrum and rami fractures on the same side. According to the Young-Burgess classification, which of the following injury mechanisms is most strongly associated with the highest volume of retroperitoneal hemorrhage requiring angioembolization?
. Lateral Compression Type I (LC-1)
. Lateral Compression Type II (LC-2)
. Anteroposterior Compression Type I (APC-1)
. Anteroposterior Compression Type III (APC-3)
. Isolated pubic rami fractures

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anteroposterior Compression Type III (APC-3)


Explanation

Anteroposterior compression (APC) injuries, specifically APC-II and APC-III (open book pelvis), are associated with a significant increase in pelvic volume and major disruption of the posterior venous plexus and branches of the internal iliac artery. APC-III injuries, which involve complete disruption of the anterior and posterior sacroiliac ligaments (complete spinopelvic dissociation), historically carry the highest risk for massive, life-threatening retroperitoneal hemorrhage.

Question 184

Topic: Pelvic & Acetabular Trauma

A 35-year-old male sustains an Anterior-Posterior Compression type II (APC-II) pelvic ring injury following a crush injury at a construction site. On arrival, he is hemodynamically unstable despite initial fluid resuscitation. What is the most common anatomic source of major hemorrhage in this type of injury?

. Superior gluteal artery
. Obturator artery
. Venous presacral plexus and fractured cancellous bone
. Internal pudendal artery
. Median sacral artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Superior gluteal artery


Explanation

While arterial bleeding (such as from the superior gluteal or internal pudendal arteries) can cause rapid, life-threatening exsanguination and is the target for pelvic angioembolization, the most common overall source of hemorrhage in pelvic ring fractures is venous bleeding from the presacral venous plexus and the exposed cancellous bone surfaces. This low-pressure bleeding is typically managed initially by reducing pelvic volume (e.g., pelvic binder) to promote tamponade.

Question 185

Topic: Pelvic & Acetabular Trauma
A 36-year-old male presents 3 weeks after a motorcycle crash with a large, fluctuant swelling over his greater trochanter. MRI confirms a fluid collection between the subcutaneous fat and the fascia lata. Which of the following is the most appropriate definitive management for this chronic Morel-Lavallée lesion?
. Observation as it will spontaneously resolve
. Percutaneous aspiration and compressive wrapping
. Open debridement, capsulectomy, and sclerodesis
. Incision and drainage with packing left open
. Intravenous antibiotics for 6 weeks

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Open debridement, capsulectomy, and sclerodesis


Explanation

Chronic Morel-Lavallée lesions develop a fibrous pseudocapsule that prevents fluid resorption. Definitive treatment requires excision of this capsule via open debridement, frequently combined with sclerodesis.

Question 186

Topic: Pelvic & Acetabular Trauma
A 33-year-old male is struck by a car and sustains a closed degloving injury over his lateral thigh and greater trochanter, clinically recognized as a Morel-Lavallée lesion. Which of the following best describes the specific pathophysiology of this lesion?
. A deep muscular hematoma secondary to a torn vastus lateralis
. A shear injury separating the skin and subcutaneous fat from the underlying fascia, disrupting epifascial perforators
. An acute localized superficial infection leading to necrotizing fasciitis
. A high-pressure injection injury tracking along fascial planes
. An avulsion of the tensor fasciae latae from the iliac crest

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A shear injury separating the skin and subcutaneous fat from the underlying fascia, disrupting epifascial perforators


Explanation

A Morel-Lavallée lesion is a closed degloving injury caused by severe shearing forces that separate the skin and subcutaneous tissue from the underlying deep fascia. This tears the trans-fascial perforating vessels, leading to a hemolymphatic fluid collection.

Question 187

Topic: Pelvic & Acetabular Trauma

A 35-year-old male is brought to the trauma bay following a high-speed motor vehicle collision. He has a mechanically unstable anterior-posterior compression (APC) type II pelvic ring injury. A pelvic binder is to be applied to temporarily stabilize the pelvis. To be most effective, where should the binder be centered?

. Directly over the iliac crests
. At the level of the umbilicus
. Over the greater trochanters
. Inferior to the pubic symphysis
. Over the anterior superior iliac spines (ASIS)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Over the greater trochanters


Explanation

A pelvic binder or sheet must be centered over the greater trochanters to effectively reduce pelvic volume and stabilize the pelvic ring. Placement over the iliac crests is incorrect and can paradoxically worsen pelvic opening or fail to control hemorrhage.

Question 188

Topic: Pelvic & Acetabular Trauma
A 28-year-old male is brought to the trauma bay following a motorcycle collision. He is hypotensive with a heart rate of 130 bpm. Pelvic radiograph shows an anteroposterior compression type III (APC-III) injury. When applying a noninvasive pelvic binder, the device should be centered directly over which of the following anatomic landmarks to optimally reduce pelvic volume?
. The anterior superior iliac spines (ASIS)
. The iliac crests
. The greater trochanters
. The pubic symphysis
. The umbilicus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The greater trochanters


Explanation

To effectively reduce pelvic volume and provide stability in an open-book pelvic ring injury (such as an APC-III), a pelvic binder must be applied directly over the greater trochanters. Placement over the iliac crests or ASIS can paradoxically open the pelvis further or fail to provide adequate closure of the posterior ring.

Question 189

Topic: Pelvic & Acetabular Trauma
A 42-year-old male is brought to the trauma bay after a crush injury. Radiographs reveal a completely disrupted pubic symphysis with a diastasis of 4 cm, and vertical displacement with complete widening of the posterior sacroiliac joint bilaterally. He is hemodynamically unstable. According to the Young-Burgess classification, what type of pelvic ring injury does this represent?
. Anteroposterior Compression Type I (APC I)
. Anteroposterior Compression Type II (APC II)
. Anteroposterior Compression Type III (APC III)
. Lateral Compression Type II (LC II)
. Vertical Shear (VS)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anteroposterior Compression Type III (APC III)


Explanation

Anteroposterior Compression Type III (APC III) injuries are characterized by complete disruption of the anterior ring (symphysis diastasis) AND complete disruption of the posterior ring, including both the anterior AND posterior sacroiliac ligaments. This results in complete hemipelvic instability (external rotation). The key distinguishing factor between APC II and APC III is the disruption of the posterior SI ligaments in APC III. While it mentions vertical displacement, the primary vector described by the 4cm diastasis and complete anterior/posterior widening fits an APC III. (Note: True vertical shear requires cranial displacement of the hemipelvis, but extreme APC forces cause massive diastasis and total SI disruption).

Question 190

Topic: Pelvic & Acetabular Trauma
Which of the following specific ligamentous disruptions is the primary distinguishing feature between an Anteroposterior Compression II (APC-II) and an Anteroposterior Compression III (APC-III) pelvic ring injury in the Young-Burgess classification?
. Posterior sacroiliac ligament disruption
. Anterior sacroiliac ligament disruption
. Sacrotuberous ligament disruption
. Sacrospinous ligament disruption
. Symphysis pubis disruption

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Symphysis pubis disruption


Explanation

In the Young-Burgess classification, APC-II injuries involve a disrupted symphysis pubis (or vertical rami fractures) along with disruption of the anterior sacroiliac, sacrotuberous, and sacrospinous ligaments, while the posterior sacroiliac ligaments remain intact (opening of the anterior SI joint). An APC-III injury involves the additional complete disruption of the posterior sacroiliac ligaments, leading to complete hemipelvic instability.

Question 191

Topic: Pelvic & Acetabular Trauma
An APC-III (anteroposterior compression type III) pelvic ring injury is characterized by complete disruption of the symphysis pubis and which of the following posterior ligamentous complexes?
. Anterior sacroiliac ligaments only
. Sacrotuberous and sacrospinous ligaments with intact posterior sacroiliac ligaments
. Complete disruption of the anterior and posterior sacroiliac ligaments
. Disruption of the iliolumbar ligament only
. Complete disruption of the sacrococcygeal ligaments

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Complete disruption of the anterior and posterior sacroiliac ligaments


Explanation

An APC-III injury involves complete anterior and posterior disruption. This includes the symphysis pubis, the sacrotuberous/sacrospinous ligaments, and both the anterior and posterior sacroiliac ligaments, leading to complete global instability.

Question 192

Topic: Pelvic & Acetabular Trauma
Figure 33a shows a line drawing of a normal hemipelvis. The anterior acetabular rim is bold. Figure 33b illustrates a hemipelvis with a crossover sign, which is indicative of what acetabular pathology?
. Low acetabular index
. Excessive acetabular retroversion
. Deficient anterior column bone
. Labral detachment
. Pelvic discontinuity

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Excessive acetabular retroversion


Explanation

In a normal AP pelvis radiograph, the anterior rim of the acetabulum runs medially and distally, diverging from the posterior rim which runs much more vertically. In excessive acetabular retroversion, the anterior rim (bold line in Figure 33b) and posterior rim start laterally, and as these lines progress medially and distally, the anterior line crosses the posterior line. This predisposes to femoral acetabular impingement.

Question 193

Topic: Pelvic & Acetabular Trauma
During surgical hip dislocation for the management of femoroacetabular impingement, preservation of what structure is paramount to maintaining vascularity to the femoral head?
. Metaphyseal vessels
. Medial epiphyseal artery
. Superficial branch of the medial femoral circumflex artery
. Deep branch of the lateral femoral circumflex artery
. Deep branch of the medial femoral circumflex artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Deep branch of the medial femoral circumflex artery


Explanation

DISCUSSION: When a trochanteric osteotomy is performed with the desire to maintain vascularity to the femoral head, as in the approach for a surgical hip dislocation, the deep branch of the medial femoral circumflex artery must be maintained. This branch courses along the posterior aspect of the greater trochanter, posterior to the tendon of obturator externus, and anterior to the tendons of superior gemellus, obturator internus, and inferior gemellus. It perforates the capsule above the superior gemellus and distal to the tendon of piriformis, before dividing into two to four terminal retinacular branches. Maintaining the attachment of the external rotators maintains the blood supply to the femoral head. Additionally, the superior-lateral retinacular vessels must also be maintained during femoral neck osteoplasty.

Question 194

Topic: Pelvic & Acetabular Trauma
A 35-year-old male is brought to the trauma bay after a motorcycle collision. He is hemodynamically unstable with a blood pressure of 80/50 mmHg and a heart rate of 130 bpm. A FAST exam is negative. An anteroposterior pelvic radiograph reveals an anteroposterior compression Type III (APC-III) pelvic ring injury, and a pelvic binder is immediately placed. What is the most common anatomic source of major hemorrhage in this specific injury pattern?
. Superior gluteal artery
. Obturator artery
. Presacral venous plexus
. Internal pudendal artery
. External iliac vein

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Presacral venous plexus


Explanation

In pelvic ring injuries, particularly those involving disruption of the posterior elements (like APC-III and vertical shear patterns), the most common source of major hemorrhage is venous bleeding, accounting for up to 80% of cases. The presacral venous plexus and prevesical venous plexus are the primary venous sources. Arterial bleeding (e.g., superior gluteal, internal pudendal) accounts for approximately 10-20% of cases.

Question 195

Topic: Pelvic & Acetabular Trauma
A hemodynamically unstable 35-year-old male is brought to the trauma bay following a high-speed motorcycle crash. Pelvic radiographs show a severely widened symphysis pubis and bilateral sacroiliac joint disruption (APC-III). A pelvic binder is to be applied. To effectively maximize reduction of the pelvic volume, at what anatomic level should the binder be centered?
. The iliac crests
. The anterior superior iliac spines (ASIS)
. The greater trochanters
. The symphysis pubis
. The subtrochanteric femur

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The greater trochanters


Explanation

To effectively reduce pelvic volume in an open-book (Anteroposterior Compression) pelvic ring injury, a pelvic binder or sheet must be centered directly over the greater trochanters. Placing the binder too proximally over the iliac crests is a common error that can paradoxically widen the pelvic outlet or fail to adequately close the symphyseal diastasis.

Question 196

Topic: Pelvic & Acetabular Trauma
Six weeks later the boy remains uncomfortable and continues to use crutches for all ambulation. What do the new radiographs seen in Figures 78a and 78b reveal?
. Osteonecrosis
. Chondrolysis
. Fixation failure at the femoral neck
. Screw cutout of the femoral head

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Fixation failure at the femoral neck


Explanation

Discussion for questions 77 and 78: It has been demonstrated on a cadaver model that screw fixation of moderate and severe slipped capital femoral epiphyses may result in screw impingement upon the acetabulum and labrum. This is likely when the screw head on the anteroposterior view is seen to lie medial to the intertrochanteric line. Femoral artery pseudoaneurysm has been reported when the screws are left long (projecting far from the bone) to ease removal. Chondrolysis is associated with persistent penetration into the hip joint; both screws stop well short of the articular surface. Many in vitro studies of slip models have demonstrated increased strength of construct of two screws compared to one, although the clinical relevance can be questioned. The radiographs show the screw heads firmly in the femoral head, with loss of fixation in the femoral neck. Sanders and associates reported a series of 7 such failures and hypothesized that acute-on-chronic slips may develop osteopenia of the femoral neck. All patients reported continued pain postoperatively rather than the relief typically seen following surgical stabilization of the epiphysis. There is no radiographic evidence of osteonecrosis or chondrolysis.

Question 197

Topic: Pelvic & Acetabular Trauma
A hemodynamically unstable trauma patient with an APC-III pelvic ring injury requires emergent pelvic binder application in the trauma bay. For maximum biomechanical efficacy, over which anatomic landmark should the binder be centered?
. Iliac crests
. Anterior superior iliac spines
. Greater trochanters
. Pubic symphysis
. Subtrochanteric region

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Greater trochanters


Explanation

Pelvic binders are most effective at reducing pelvic volume and stabilizing the ring when centered directly over the greater trochanters. Placement over the iliac crests is a common error and provides suboptimal reduction.

Question 198

Topic: Pelvic & Acetabular Trauma

When evaluating an acetabular fracture utilizing the standard Judet radiographic series, which structural components of the acetabulum are best visualized in profile on the obturator oblique view?

. Anterior column and posterior wall
. Posterior column and anterior wall
. Iliopectineal line and posterior column
. Ilioischial line and anterior wall
. Acetabular dome and quadrilateral surface

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior column and posterior wall


Explanation

The obturator oblique view of the pelvis profiles the anterior column and the posterior wall of the acetabulum. Conversely, the iliac oblique view profiles the posterior column and the anterior wall.

Question 199

Topic: Pelvic & Acetabular Trauma
A 45-year-old male sustains a closed pelvic ring injury in a high-speed motor vehicle collision. Physical examination reveals a large, fluctuant, soft tissue swelling over the greater trochanter with overlying skin ecchymosis. Aspiration yields serosanguinous fluid. Which of the following accurately characterizes the pathophysiology of this specific lesion?
. Separation of the epidermis from the dermis with serous fluid accumulation
. Separation of the subcutaneous tissue from the underlying fascia filled with hemolymphatic fluid
. A contained subfascial hematoma deep to the tensor fascia lata
. An intramuscular hematoma of the gluteus maximus secondary to direct contusion
. A suppurative collection within the trochanteric bursa secondary to post-traumatic seeding

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Separation of the subcutaneous tissue from the underlying fascia filled with hemolymphatic fluid


Explanation

The clinical presentation describes a Morel-Lavallée lesion, which is a closed degloving injury. It is characterized by the traumatic separation of the subcutaneous fat and skin from the underlying deep fascia. This creates a potential space that fills with blood, lymph, and necrotic fat (hemolymphatic fluid). If unrecognized or improperly treated, it carries a high risk of soft tissue necrosis and deep infection.

Question 200

Topic: Pelvic & Acetabular Trauma
An unstable 35-year-old male is brought to the trauma bay following a high-speed motorcycle collision. His blood pressure is 80/40 mmHg. An anteroposterior pelvic radiograph reveals an APC-III pelvic ring injury (open book pelvis). A circumferential pelvic binder is ordered. To maximize the biomechanical reduction of the pelvic volume, the binder should be centered precisely over which of the following anatomical landmarks?
. The iliac crests
. The anterior superior iliac spines (ASIS)
. The greater trochanters
. The pubic symphysis
. The level of the L5-S1 interspace

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The greater trochanters


Explanation

To effectively reduce pelvic volume and provide hemostasis in an 'open book' (APC) pelvic ring injury, a pelvic binder or sheet must be centered directly over the greater trochanters. This directs the compressive force through the femoral heads and into the acetabula, effectively closing the anterior diastasis at the pubic symphysis and reducing the posterior sacroiliac joints. Placing the binder higher (e.g., iliac crests) can actually flare the true pelvis and exacerbate the deformity.