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Question 1701

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
Figure 18a shows the clinical photograph of a 31-year-old man who has a slowly growing nodule on his right middle finger. It is minimally tender, and there is no erythema on examination. A biopsy specimen is shown in Figure 18b. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Clear cell sarcoma
. Clear cell carcinoma
. Epidermal inclusion cyst
. Nora’s tumor (BPOP)
. Epithelioid sarcoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Epithelioid sarcoma


Explanation

Epithelioid sarcoma is the most common soft-tissue sarcoma in the hand and most commonly occurs in young adults. The tumors can be superficial and may become ulcerated. Deeper lesions are often attached to tendons, tendon sheaths, or fascial structures. These are usually minimally symptomatic. The biopsy specimen reveals the typical appearance of a nodular pattern with central necrosis. They can mimic a necrotizing granulomatous process. Usually there are chronic inflammatory cells along the margin of the tumor nodules. This biopsy specimen does not have the clear cells necessary for a clear cell carcinoma or sarcoma. Nora’s tumor is a bizarre parosteal osteochondromatous proliferation (BPOP) first described in 1983 by the pathologist, Nora. The lesion is defined as a reactive heterotopic ossification and is mostly found in the hands or feet of adults in the third decade of life.

Question 1702

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 39-year-old man has had a foot mass for the past several months. MRI scans are shown in Figures 78a through 78c. A core biopsy specimen reveals synovial sarcoma, and a staging chest CT scan is normal. Which of the following treatments offers the best local tumor control and expedites the patient’s return to normal function?
. Transtibial amputation
. Transmetatarsal amputation
. Wide resection and radiation therapy
. Ray resection and radiation therapy
. Transfemoral amputation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Transtibial amputation


Explanation

Synovial sarcoma is the most common foot sarcoma. Frequently there is a delay in diagnosis because the lesions are rare. The lesions tend to occur in younger adults, typically between the ages of 15 and 40 years. In this patient, the tumor has grown to a substantial size and involves many of the bones of the midfoot. Limb salvage may be a possibility when incorporated into a multidisciplinary treatment program, but this will entail months of adjuvant treatment and significant morbidity. Amputation and early prosthetic fitting still have a role in management of some soft-tissue sarcomas, most frequently in the foot.

Question 1703

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 50-year-old woman has had severe hip pain for 4 months. Plain radiographs show a purely lytic destructive lesion that is poorly marginated. The technetium bone scan does not show any major uptake. The computerized tomography scan shows purely lytic bone destruction with breakthrough of the cortical bone. The magnetic resonance image shows a lesion that is homogenously low on T1-weighted images and high on T2-weighted images. A needle biopsy shows round, epithelial-like cells grouped in clusters in a fibrous background. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment regimen?
. Metastatic bone disease
. Multiple myeloma
. Lymphoma
. Chondrosarcoma
. Malignant fibrous histiocytoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Metastatic bone disease


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The clinical presentation, imaging, and biopsy findings (epithelial-like cells in clusters) are diagnostic of metastatic bone disease. Treatment for metastatic bone disease depends on the primary site, the patient's systemic status, and the stability of the lesion.

Question 1704

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 38-year-old male presents with chronic knee swelling, catching, and mild pain. Radiographs reveal multiple loose bodies of uniform size scattered throughout the knee joint. MRI shows joint effusion and multiple calcified nodules. Which of the following is the underlying pathophysiology of this condition?

. Degenerative fragmentation of articular cartilage
. Metaplastic transformation of the synovium
. Inflammatory deposition of monosodium urate crystals
. Neoplastic proliferation of lipocytes
. Autoimmune destruction of the joint capsule

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Metaplastic transformation of the synovium


Explanation

Primary synovial chondromatosis is a benign neoplastic/metaplastic condition in which the synovial membrane undergoes metaplasia to form cartilaginous nodules. These nodules can detach, become loose bodies, and subsequently calcify or ossify. They are typically uniform in size, unlike secondary synovial chondromatosis (due to osteoarthritis or trauma), where loose bodies are usually fewer and of varying sizes.

Question 1705

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 32-year-old female presents with recurrent, spontaneous hemarthrosis of the knee without a history of trauma. MRI of the knee shows a joint effusion and nodular synovial proliferation that demonstrates blooming artifact on gradient-echo (GRE) sequences. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Synovial hemangioma
. Pigmented villonodular synovitis (PVNS)
. Rheumatoid arthritis
. Lipoma arborescens
. Hemophilia A

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pigmented villonodular synovitis (PVNS)


Explanation

Pigmented villonodular synovitis (PVNS), also known as tenosynovial giant cell tumor, is a benign but locally aggressive synovial proliferative disorder. It presents with recurrent monoarticular hemarthrosis. The classic MRI finding is low signal intensity on T1 and T2 weighted images with a prominent 'blooming artifact' on gradient-echo (GRE) sequences due to the paramagnetic effects of hemosiderin deposition.

Question 1706

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 20-year-old man has a symptomatic lesion of fibrous dysplasia in the femoral neck. Management should consist of
. curettage, cortical strutting, and internal fixation.
. curettage only.
. observation.
. neoadjuvant chemotherapy.
. radiation therapy.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. curettage, cortical strutting, and internal fixation.


Explanation

Fibrous dysplasia in the femoral neck frequently warrants treatment because of the risk of pathologic fracture. Cortical strut grafts reduce the risk of local recurrence compared with cancellous bone grafting. Because of the consequences associated with fracture in this location, prophylactic fixation is recommended. Radiation therapy and chemotherapy are not used for this benign condition.

Question 1707

Topic: Bone Tumors
A 9-year-old boy has a painless enlarged mass on the dorsum of his hand. Figures 14a through 14d show the clinical photograph, radiographs, and biopsy specimen. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Fracture callus
. Enchondroma (Ollier’s disease)
. Multiple hereditary exostosis
. Osteosarcoma
. Chondrosarcoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Multiple hereditary exostosis


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Multiple hereditary exostosis and enchondroma commonly present as multiple lesions in the hand. Multiple hereditary exostosis consists of cartilage capped bony exostoses arising from the metaphyseal end of rapidly growing bones. Osteosarcoma and chondrosarcoma rarely appear as multiple lesions. Fracture callus can exhibit enchondral ossification that is usually circumferential, but the radiographic findings are not consistent with fracture. REFERENCES: Porter DE, Emerton ME, Villanueva-Lopez F, Simpson AH: Clinical and radiographic analysis of osteochondromas and growth disturbance in hereditary multiple exostoses. J Pediatr Orthop 2000;20:246-250. Pierz KA, Stieber JR, Kusumi K, Dormans JP: Hereditary multiple exostoses: One center’s experience and review of etiology. Clin Orthop 2002;402:49-59.

Question 1708

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 13-year-old boy has had a painless mass in the arm for the past 2 months. An MRI scan and biopsy specimens are shown in Figures 46a through 46c. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Desmoid tumor
. Rhabdomyosarcoma
. Nodular fasciitis
. Malignant fibrous histiocytoma
. Lipoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Nodular fasciitis


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Nodular fasciitis is a benign soft-tissue lesion that usually arises from the fascia and is often misdiagnosed as a sarcoma. Desmoid tumors (aggressive fibromatosis) are also benign tumors with a greater tendency for local recurrence. Desmoid tumors have more spindle-shaped fibroblasts in an abundant collagenous matrix. Malignant fibrous histiocytoma is a hypercellular pleomorphic sarcoma more commonly found in adults. The histology is not consistant with a fatty tumor. REFERENCE: Bernstein KE, Lattes R: Nodular (pseudosarcomatous) fasciitis, a nonrecurrent lesion: Clinicopathologic study of 134 cases. Cancer 1982;49:1668-1678.

Question 1709

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 16-year-old boy has had thigh pain for the past several months. He denies any history of trauma. Examination reveals a large, deeply fixed, soft-tissue mass in the thigh. Laboratory results show an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and leukocytosis. A plain radiograph and MRI scan are shown in Figures 1a and 1b. Biopsy specimens are shown in Figures 1c and 1d. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Ewing’s sarcoma
. Osteomyelitis
. Osteosarcoma
. Chondrosarcoma
. Giant cell tumor of bone

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ewing’s sarcoma


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Ewing’s sarcoma typically can occur in the diaphysis of the long bones (50% to 55%). It is often accompanied by a large soft-tissue mass. Abnormal findings are common, including a low-grade fever, an elevated ESR, and leukocytosis. The histology is consistent with a small round blue cell tumor. The unique pathology and other findings exclude osteosarcoma. Giant cell tumor and chondrosarcoma have a different histologic appearance and typically are more metaphyseal in location.

Question 1710

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
Figures 1a through 1c show the radiograph and MRI scans of a 16-year-old patient who has a painful hip. Examination reveals a significant limp, limited abduction and internal rotation, and severe pain with internal rotation and adduction. A biopsy specimen is shown in Figure 1d. What is the deposited pigment observed in this condition?
. Hemoglobin
. Myoglobin
. Melanin
. Copper
. Hemosiderin

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hemosiderin


Explanation

Pigmented villonodular synovitis (PVNS) is a synovial proliferative disorder that remains a diagnostic difficulty. The most common clinical features are mechanical pain and limited joint motion. On radiographs, the classic finding is often a large lesion, associated with multiple lucencies. Other findings may include a normal radiographic appearance, loss of joint space, osteonecrosis of the femoral head, or acetabular protrusion. MRI is the imaging modality of choice and will show the characteristic findings of a joint effusion, synovial proliferation, and bulging of the hip. The synovial lining has a low signal on T1- and T2-weighted images, secondary to hemosiderin deposition. Copper deposition occurs in patients with Wilson’s disease, which mainly affects the liver.

Question 1711

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
An 8-year-old boy is diagnosed with acute onset cauda equina syndrome. A radiograph, MRI scans, and a biopsy specimen are shown in Figures 57a through 57d. What is the most appropriate treatment?
. Radiation therapy
. Chemotherapy
. Wide surgical resection
. Marginal surgical resection
. Aspiration and steroid injection

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Marginal surgical resection


Explanation

The findings are consistent with an aneurysmal bone cyst. The MRI scan demonstrates a lesion involving the posterior elements of the vertebrae with fluid-fluid levels and neural compression. Fibrovascular tissue with multinucleated giant cells surrounding a vascular lake is seen on the histology. The most appropriate treatment is a marginal resection of the involved posterior elements. Although the recurrence rate can be as high as 25% to 30%, wide surgical resection could result in permanent neurologic injury and is not necessary. Aspiration and steroid injection have been advocated but would not relieve the nerve compression in this patient. Radiation therapy and chemotherapy are not indicated.

Question 1712

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 10-year-old boy who plays baseball reports acute pain after throwing a softball from the outfield to second base. A radiograph is shown in Figure 26. Management should consist of
. observation during healing of the fracture, followed by bone marrow or corticosteroid injection.
. biopsy and appropriate chemotherapy.
. curettage and bone grafting.
. high-dose systemic corticosteroids.
. pulsed electromagnetic fields.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. observation during healing of the fracture, followed by bone marrow or corticosteroid injection.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The patient has a fracture through a unicameral bone cyst, as evidenced by the “falling leaf” sign on the radiograph. Following healing of the fracture, treatment should consist of corticosteroid injection or bone marrow injection. Some cysts heal with the fracture and do not require injections. Biopsy is unnecessary because the radiograph shows that the cyst is benign. Curettage and bone grafting are seldom necessary because these cysts regularly heal with injections. Corticosteroids are useful when injected into the cyst, but are not used systemically. Pulsed electromagnetic fields have not been used therapeutically in this condition. REFERENCE: Yandow SM, Lundeen GA, Scott SM, Coffin C: Autogenic bone marrow injections as a treatment for simple bone cyst. J Pediatr Orthop 1998;18:616-620.

Question 1713

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
What is the most common reason an individual with a malignant soft-tissue tumor in the extremities seeks medical attention?
. Incidental finding on imaging tests
. Pain
. Presence of a mass
. Deformity
. Neurologic symptoms

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Presence of a mass


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Unlike malignant bone tumors, malignant soft-tissue tumors usually are asymptomatic and present with the presence of a mass. Malignant soft-tissue tumors enlarge by centrifugal growth, creating a mass while compressing surrounding tissue. Symptoms may develop as the result of direct compression on neurovascular structures as the tumor enlarges. This is especially true in the pelvis where the tumor can enlarge appreciably without being noticed. However, in the extremities, the tumor is most often apparent before neurologic symptoms develop. An asymptomatic mass is not necessarily benign; therefore, biopsy should not be delayed. It is uncommon for a malignant soft-tissue mass to be discovered incidentally. Soft-tissue tumors are not typically apparent on radiographs; they are best identified with MRI. REFERENCES: Brouns F, Stas M, De Wever I: Delay in diagnosis of soft tissue sarcomas. Eur J Surg Oncol 2003;29:440-445. Rougraff B: The diagnosis and management of soft tissue sarcomas of the extremities in the adult. Curr Probl Cancer 1999;23:1-50. Sim FH, Frassica FJ, Frassica DA: Soft-tissue tumors: Diagnosis, evaluation, and management. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1994;2:202-211.

Question 1714

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
Figures 45a and 45b show the radiographs of a 46-year-old man who reports the acute onset of right knee pain and is unable to bear weight on the extremity. His medical history is unremarkable. The next most appropriate step in management should consist of
. intramedullary rod fixation.
. arterial embolization.
. skeletal traction and radiation therapy for 2 weeks.
. CT of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis, and serum protein electrophoresis.
. a skeletal survey and serum protein electrophoresis.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. CT of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis, and serum protein electrophoresis.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The patient has a pathologic fracture of the right distal femur; therefore, given the patient’s age, the most likely diagnosis is metastatic carcinoma. Staging studies should be obtained prior to surgical treatment. Immediate intramedullary fixation is contraindicated before a diagnosis is made by biopsy. Surgical stabilization should be performed prior to radiation therapy. REFERENCE: Rougraff BT, Kneisl JS, Simon MA: Skeletal metastases of unknown origin: A prospective study of a diagnostic strategy. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1993;75:1276-1281.

Question 1715

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
  • What factor is most commonly associated with malignant transformation of a giant cell tumor?
. high-grade histology of the initial tumor
. multiple local recurrences after curettage
. previous treatment of the tumor with cryotherapy
. previous treatment of the tumor with radiation therapy
. extraosseous extension into two or more adjacent compartments

Correct Answer & Explanation

. high-grade histology of the initial tumor


Explanation

Most authors have agreed that radiation therapy should be avoided in the treatment of giant cell tumor, as there is a high prevalence of sarcomatous degeneration.

Question 1716

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 14-year-old girl reports hip pain that is exacerbated by weight bearing. A radiograph and biopsy specimen are shown in Figures 16a and 16b. The best course of management should be
. a steroid injection.
. curettage and bone grafting.
. radiation therapy.
. observation.
. internal fixation without a bone graft.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. curettage and bone grafting.


Explanation

The patient has a unicameral bone cyst. Because the subtrochanteric part of the femur is a high-stress region, the treatment of choice is bone curettage and grafting.

Question 1717

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 40-year-old man reports an enlarging soft-tissue mass in his right shoulder. Based on the MRI scan and biopsy specimens shown in Figures 40a through 40c, what is the most likely diagnosis?
. Nodular fasciitis
. Fibrosarcoma
. Intramuscular hemangioma
. Schwannoma
. Rhabdomyoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Nodular fasciitis


Explanation

Nodular fasciitis is a pseudosarcomatous, self-limiting reactive process composed of fibroblasts and myofibroblasts. It is most commonly seen in adults who are 20 to 40 years of age. Histologically, the lesion is composed of predominantly plump, immature-appearing fibroblasts that bear a close resemblance to the fibroblasts found in granulation tissue.

Question 1718

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 14-year-old girl reports bilateral patellofemoral symptoms. Based on the radiograph and MRI scans shown in Figures 23a through 23d, what is the next most appropriate step in management of the lesion?
. Open biopsy
. Observation
. Cortisone injection
. Oncology referral
. CT of the chest

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Observation


Explanation

A periosteal desmoid lesion is a tumor simulator characterized by a bone irregularity along the posteromedial aspect of the distal femur. These lesions are asymptomatic and are frequently an incidental finding. Observation is the management of choice.

Question 1719

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
Figures 1 and 2 show the clinical photograph and ultrasonography image obtained from an 8-month-old boy who has a 2-month history of a well-circumscribed mass in the palm, just proximal to the palmar digital crease of the index finger. The mass has not changed in size and does not seem to cause pain. What is the best next step in treatment?
. Ultrasonography-guided aspiration
. Excisional biopsy
. Observation
. MRI of the hand for further characterization of the mass

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Observation


Explanation

The history, clinical photograph, and ultrasonography evaluation point to a diagnosis of ganglion cyst. The likelihood of resolution of ganglion cysts without intervention in pediatric patients ranges from 66-79%. Therefore the most appropriate treatment at this time is observation. Because the diagnosis is confirmed with the information provided, excisional biopsy and further imaging are not necessary.

Question 1720

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 38-year-old man who is an avid runner reports a several month history of right hip pain. Based on the radiograph and cross-sectional CT scan shown in Figures 33a and 33b, what is the most likely diagnosis for the lesions seen on the femoral neck?
. Synovial herniation pits
. Osteoid osteoma
. Fibrous dysplasia
. Metastatic bone disease
. Multiple enchondromas

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Synovial herniation pits


Explanation

Synovial herniation pits or Pitt’s pits are tumor simulators and are incidentally identified on radiographs obtained for either pain or trauma. The main diagnostic pitfall with this lesion is mistakenly identifying it as an osteoid osteoma. Accurate diagnosis is achieved by knowledge of the location and the characteristic imaging appearance. These are common lesions in individuals with femoroacetabular impingement.