Question 1701
Topic: 10. Pathology and OncologyCorrect Answer & Explanation
. Epithelioid sarcoma
Practice Set 86 of 351
This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 10. Pathology and Oncology. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
. Epithelioid sarcoma
. Transtibial amputation
. Metastatic bone disease
A 38-year-old male presents with chronic knee swelling, catching, and mild pain. Radiographs reveal multiple loose bodies of uniform size scattered throughout the knee joint. MRI shows joint effusion and multiple calcified nodules. Which of the following is the underlying pathophysiology of this condition?
. Metaplastic transformation of the synovium
A 32-year-old female presents with recurrent, spontaneous hemarthrosis of the knee without a history of trauma. MRI of the knee shows a joint effusion and nodular synovial proliferation that demonstrates blooming artifact on gradient-echo (GRE) sequences. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Pigmented villonodular synovitis (PVNS)
. curettage, cortical strutting, and internal fixation.
. Multiple hereditary exostosis
. Nodular fasciitis
. Ewing’s sarcoma
. Hemosiderin
. Marginal surgical resection
. observation during healing of the fracture, followed by bone marrow or corticosteroid injection.
. Presence of a mass
. CT of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis, and serum protein electrophoresis.
. high-grade histology of the initial tumor
. curettage and bone grafting.
. Nodular fasciitis
. Observation
. Observation
. Synovial herniation pits