This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 10. Pathology and Oncology. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 1681
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
Figures 16a and 16b are the radiograph and MR image of a 15-year-old dance athlete with 2 weeks of pain at the left distal femur, a limp, and an inability to dance. Knee motion is 0 to 135 degrees with minimal pain and there is no effusion. Her temperature is 37.0°C, WBC is 12000 /µL (rr, 4500-11000 /µL), CRP is 0.8 mg/L (rr, 0.08-3.1 mg/L), and ESR is 21 mm/h (rr, 0-20 mm/h).
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Biopsy, culture, curettage, bone graft, and possible internal fixation
Explanation
DISCUSSIONFigures 14a through 14e show a 13-year-old boy with osteomyelitis of the distal tibia and a large subperiosteal abscess. The patient has failed treatment with IV ceftriaxone, and methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus infection is likely. Aspiration, cultures, irrigation and debridement, IV vancomycin, an infectious disease consult, and an evaluation for possible deep vein thrombosis is prudent initial treatment. Figure 15a through 15c show a 7-year-old girl who sustained a deer tick bite while vacationing in Connecticut. She has Lyme arthritis and a Lyme “bulls-eye” rash on the same leg. Aspiration, cultures, Lyme serology, and oral amoxicillin for 30 days is prudent initial treatment. Figures 16a and 16b are the radiograph and MR image of a 15-year-old dance athlete with a probable minor fracture via a benign cyst of the distal femur. The geographic cyst may be a nonossifying fibroma, eosinophilic granuloma, Brodie abscess, or simple bone cyst. Biopsy, culture, curettage and bone graft, and possible internal fixation is reasonable initial treatment.
Question 1682
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 65-year-old man has a painful mass of the middle finger. A clinical photograph, lateral radiograph, coronal MRI scan, and biopsy specimen are seen in Figures 20a through 20d. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Chondrosarcoma
Explanation
Although the degeneration of an isolated benign cartilaginous lesion into a chondrosarcoma is rare, it occurs in roughly 10% of patients with Ollier’s disease. Pain is the most common symptom of chondrosarcoma. The treatment of low-grade chondrosarcoma ranges from intralesional excision to wide amputation. The intent of the surgery is to remove all the disease to decrease the chance of local recurrence.
Question 1683
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A radiograph, MRI scans, and a biopsy specimen of a 9-year-old boy with thigh pain are shown in Figures 37a through 37d. Management should consist of
Correct Answer & Explanation
. wide resection of the femur and reconstruction.
Explanation
DISCUSSION: The patient has Ewing’s sarcoma. Management options for local tumor control include radiation therapy, resection, or a combination; however, in this patient wide resection is preferred over radiation therapy. Radiation therapy is associated with damage to the growth plate, pathologic fracture, radiation-induced sarcomas, and a local recurrence rate of approximately 10% to 12%. Radiation therapy is used for positive margins, unresectable tumors, or for tumors that have a poor response to chemotherapy. Amputation is not necessary since the tumor is resectable. Chemotherapy has improved overall survival rates to over 60% of patients. REFERENCES: Sailer SL: The role of radiation therapy in localized Ewing’ sarcoma. Semin Radiat Oncol 1997;7:225-235. Shankar AG, Pinkerton CR, Atra A, Ashley S, Lewis I, Spooner D, et al: Local therapy and other factors influencing site of relapse in patients with localised Ewing’s sarcoma. United Kingdom Children’s Cancer Study Group (UKCCSG). Eur J Cancer 1999;35:1698-1704. Carrie C, Mascard E, Gomez F, Habrand JL, Alapetite C, Oberlin O, et al: Nonmetastatic pelvic Ewing sarcoma: Report of the French society of pediatric oncology. Med Pediatr Oncol 1999;33:444-449. Terek RM, Brien EW, Marcove RC, Meyers PA, Lane JM, Healey JH: Treatment of femoral Ewing’s sarcoma. Cancer 1996;78:70-78.
Question 1684
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 10-year-old child reports acute leg pain after wrestling with his brother. AP and lateral radiographs are shown in Figures 21a and 21b. What is the best course of action?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Closed reduction and a long leg cast
Explanation
DISCUSSION: The radiographs show an eccentric metaphyseal lesion with a well-defined reactive rim of bone that is consistent with a nonossifying fibroma. Pathologic fractures through benign lesions should be treated as appropriate for the fracture, allowing the fracture to heal. Biopsy is not needed when the radiographic diagnosis is benign. MRI, in the presence of a fracture, is not particularly helpful because of the hematoma. If radiographic findings reveal that the lesion appears aggressive, a biopsy should be performed, obtaining tissue away from the fracture site. REFERENCES: Marks KE, Bauer TW: Fibrous tumors of bone. Orthop Clin North Am 1989;20:377. Ponseti IV, Friedman B: Evaluation of metaphyseal fibrous defects. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1949;31:582.
Question 1685
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
Figure 53 is the emergency department radiograph of a 7-year-old boy who has pain and is unwilling to use his right arm after a fall on the playground. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Nonsurgical treatment of the fracture
Explanation
DISCUSSION: When a unicameral cyst is present in the setting of a pathological fracture, it is best to allow the fracture to heal before administering interventions for the cyst. In some cases, waiting may obviate the need for a procedure to manage the cyst. When indicated, the initial procedure of choice is aspiration and injection of the cyst. Although many variations of the procedure exist, current evidence continues to support the role of methylprednisolone in the injection portion of the procedure. Curettage and packing may sometimes be appropriate for recalcitrant cysts, but is not indicated for this patient. These cysts are typically solitary and are not considered at risk for malignant degeneration or systemic involvement; therefore, further distant imaging and biopsy is unnecessary.
Question 1686
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
Figures 62a through 62c are the MR images and CT scan of a 65-year-old man with a history of diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and smoking. He has a 6-week history of increasing midback pain, lower extremity pain, and weakness. What is the most likely diagnosis, and how should this diagnosis be confirmed?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Thoracic tumor; CT-guided biopsy
Explanation
DISCUSSION: The sagittal T2-weighted and axial T2-weighted images show a lesion within the T8 vertebral body that involves the posterior elements. There is an associated epidural component that results in compression of the spinal cord. The sagittal reconstructed CT image shows a lytic lesion within the T8 vertebral body. This pattern of vertebral body involvement with preservation of the adjacent disks and endplates in a 65-year-old patient is most compatible with a diagnosis of a tumor. The most likely tumor is a metastatic lesion. A CT-guided biopsy will confirm this diagnosis. Although thoracic tuberculosis does not typically cross the disk space, the lack of an anterior soft-tissue component decreases the likelihood of this diagnosis. RECOMMENDED READINGS: Khanna AJ, Shindle MK, Wasserman BA, Gokaslan ZL, Gonzales RA, Buchowski JM, Riley LH 3rd. Use of magnetic resonance imaging in differentiating compartmental location of spinal tumors. Am J Orthop (Belle Mead NJ). 2005 Oct;34(10):472-6. Review. PubMed PMID: 16304794. White AP, Kwon BK, Lindskog DM, Friedlaender GE, Grauer JN. Metastatic disease of the spine. J Am Acad Orthop Surg. 2006 Oct;14(11):587-98. Review. PubMed PMID: 17030592.
Question 1687
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 45-year-old woman has had radiating pain in the medial ankle for the past 3 months. Examination reveals a small mass in the retromedial ankle region and a positive Tinel’s sign. An intraoperative photograph and a hematoxylin/eosin biopsy specimen are shown in Figures 24a and 24b. Treatment should consist of
Correct Answer & Explanation
. marginal excision.
Explanation
DISCUSSION: Neurilemoma is a benign tumor of nerve sheath origin, and peak incidence is in the third through sixth decades. The tumor is well encapsulated on the surface of a peripheral nerve. MRI findings may be significant for a “string sign.” A positive Tinel’s sign in the distribution of the nerve affected may be present. Grossly, the lesion is well encapsulated in a nerve sheath. Microscopically, there are structures referred to as Antoni A (a pattern of spindle cells arranged in intersecting bundles) and Antoni B (areas with less cellularity with loosely arranged cells). These lesions are benign, and treatment should consist of marginal excision. Nerve function may be preserved by careful dissection, excising the lesion parallel to the nerve fascicles so the lesion may be extruded. Recurrence is rare.
Question 1688
Topic: Bone Tumors
A 13-year-old premenarchal girl presents with back pain and scoliosis. Figures A through D are the bone scan, SPECT scan, axial and coronal images respectively. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Osteoid osteoma
Explanation
This patient has osteoid osteoma (OO). OO and osteoblastoma (OB) of the spine commonly present in the 2nd decade of life. CT shows a low attenuation nidus with central mineralization and varying degrees of perinidal sclerosis. NSAIDs are thought to inhibit PGE2 and PGI2 produced within the nidus, and suppress perinidal edema arising from high levels of COX2 expression in neoplastic nidal osteoblasts. OOs of the spine are the most common cause of painful scoliosis in children and young adults. Figures A and B are bone scan and SPECT scans respectively that demonstrate intense tracer uptake in the left transverse process of L3 characteristic of an osteoid osteoma. Figures C and D are axial and coronal reconstructed CT images showing a lesion of the left transverse process of L3 with a dense "nidus" with surrounding lucency characteristic of osteoid osteoma.
Question 1689
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 46-year-old woman has bilateral groin pain, with more severe pain on the left side than on the right side. Figures 44a and 44b show a radiograph and a T1-weighted MRI scan. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Osteonecrosis
Explanation
DISCUSSION: The radiograph reveals bilateral patchy sclerosis of the femoral heads without evidence of collapse. The MRI scan shows bilateral head involvement with a common serpentine-like low-intensity signal of the superior femoral head that is common to osteonecrosis. Changes confined to the femoral head effectively exclude rheumatoid arthritis and osteoarthritis. REFERENCES: Resnick D (ed): Diagnosis of Bone and Joint Disorders, ed 4. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 2002, vol 4, pp 3160-3162. Epstein RE, Dalinka MK: Ischemic necrosis, in Stark DD, Bradley WG (eds): Magnetic Resonance Imaging, ed 3. St Louis, MO, Mosby, 1999, vol 2, pp 1023-1027.
Question 1690
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
Which of the following statements describing chordomas is false?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. They are highly radiosensitive.
Explanation
DISCUSSION: Casali and associates provided a recent review of the treatment options for chordomas. These tumors are not radiosensitive; however, modern intensity modulated radiosurgery techniques may be of value. The combination of surgery and radiotherapy compared to surgery alone results in the same disease-free survival time. Complete surgical resection of the chordoma with clean margins offers the best survival; however, its location may make total removal impossible. Thus subtotal resection followed by radiotherapy results in better survival despite the tumor’s lack of radiosensitivity. REFERENCE: Casali PG, Stacchiotti S, Sangalli C, et al: Chordoma. Curr Opin Oncol 2007;19:367-370.
Question 1691
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
Figures 59a and 59b are the axial T2 and T1 with contrast MRI scans of a 32-year-old woman who has a 10-year history of pain and a 1-year history of progressive swelling in her right leg. The histopathology is shown in Figure 59c. A radiograph of her leg showed no mineralizations or osseous erosions. The chromosomal abnormality that is associated with this disease is:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. t(X;18)
Explanation
Discussion: The imaging shows a soft-tissue mass with histology showing a synovial sarcoma. This histology is associated with t(X;18). Ewing sarcoma is associated with t(11;22); alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma with t(2;13); and myxoid liposarcoma with t(12;16). Although the presented monophasic histology could be consistent with other sarcomas, it does not have the characteristics of Ewing sarcoma (small round blue cells), alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma (alveolar pattern), or myxoid liposarcoma (myxoid stroma and signet ring lipoblasts with a plexiform capillary network).
Question 1692
Topic: Bone Tumors
Figure 15a shows the radiograph of a patient who has a chondrosarcoma of the acetabulum. Bone scans are shown in Figures 15b and 15c. Numerous soft subcutaneous masses are present. A clinical photograph of the hand is shown in Figure 15d. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A 51-year-old male 2-pack per day smoker presents with a hyperkeratotic light brown plaque on the dorsum of his left ring finger that has been present for 7 years. It measures 14 mm by 13 mm. Initially, it responded to topical wart treatments, but has failed to do so recently so he sought evaluation by a dermatologist who biopsied the lesion. The results revealed squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) in situ, and he was referred for further surgical management. He has no other skin lesions, no history of SCC and no axillary lymphadenopathy. What is the next step in management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Wide excision
Explanation
SCC in situ is a low-grade malignancy that typically presents as painless lesions on areas of high sun exposure such as the dorsum of the hand and fingers. The recommended treatment for lesions smaller than 100 mm is wide excision with 4 mm margins to a depth 1 layer below the tumor, along with any adjacent area of induration. Sentinel lymph node biopsy is typically not indicated in the setting of a low-grade tumor such as this one and in the absence of axillary lymphadenopathy.
Question 1694
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 10-month-old boy has multiple skeletal lesions and a skin rash that he has had since he was a newborn. Based on the radiographs and biopsy specimens shown in Figures 79a through 79d, what is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Langerhans cell histiocytosis
Explanation
Langerhans cell histiocytosis or eosinophilic granuloma is a nonneoplastic lesion that is part of a spectrum of clinical diseases featuring histiocytes. Most occur during the first two decades of life within any bone. Radiographs show a radiolucent lesion, frequently diaphyseal in location. A periosteal response is occasionally seen and can resemble more aggressive lesions such as osteomyelitis or Ewing’s sarcoma. Histology demonstrates CD1a positive histiocytes with large oval-shaped nuclei with indentation, and a variable presence of eosinophils.
Question 1695
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
In what decade does the peak incidence of conventional osteosarcoma occur?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Second
Explanation
Discussion: Conventional osteosarcoma most frequently occurs in the second decade, followed by the third decade. Approximately 70% to 75% of patients with osteosarcoma are between the ages of 10 and 25 years. Secondary osteosarcoma (arising in Paget’s disease or radiation-induced) is seen in older adults.
Question 1696
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 17-year-old woman seen in the emergency department reports right knee pain and swelling that has progressively worsened over the past several weeks. Radiographs are shown. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Osteosarcoma
Explanation
Discussion: The radiographs reveal a blastic lesion of the proximal tibial metaphysis with cortical destruction, mineralization extending into the soft tissue laterally, indistinct margins, and destruction of the normal trabecular pattern. In this age group, with this aggressive appearance, osteosarcoma is the most likely diagnosis.
Question 1697
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
Figures 24a through 24c show the coronal T1-weighted, T2-weighted fat-saturated, and T1-weighted fat-saturated gadolinium MRI scans of the proximal thigh of a 52-year-old woman who reports a mass in the medial thigh and groin area. She notes that the fullness has grown in size over the course of many months. Based on these findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Liposarcoma
Explanation
The images show a complex, lobular lesion of the thigh that has signal characteristics that follow fat. The size of the lesion, the areas of stranding within the mass, along with mild uptake on the gadolinium sequences and the mild edema within the lesion on the T2-weighted image make liposarcoma the most likely diagnosis.
Question 1698
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 20-year-old patient has foot pain. A radiograph and T1-weighted MRI scan are shown in Figures 8a and 8b. A biopsy specimen is shown in Figure 8c. Treatment should consist of
Correct Answer & Explanation
. extended curettage and cementation.
Explanation
DISCUSSION: Giant cell tumors occur near articular surfaces in young adults. The histology shows abundant giant cells with nuclei resembling the surrounding cells. Although the MRI scan shows soft-tissue involvement, curettage is still the preferred treatment. Chemotherapy is not necessary for benign lesions, and amputation is too aggressive. Cementation, phenol, and cryosurgery (liquid nitrogen) are all acceptable local adjuvants to curettage. Packing the cavity with bone graft rather than cement is also acceptable. REFERENCES: Dahlin DC, Unni KK: Bone Tumors: General Aspects and Data on 8,542 Cases. Springfield, IL, Charles C. Thomas, 1986. Gitelis S, Mallin BA, Piasecki P, Turner F: Intralesional excision compared with en bloc resection for giant cell tumor of bone. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1993;75:1648-1655.
Question 1699
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
Figure 74 is the radiograph of an 11-year-old boy with pain in his left arm. Prognosis is most influenced by:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. stage at presentation.
Explanation
The imaging is characteristic for high-grade osteosarcoma. In patients with osteosarcoma, stage at presentation has the most prognostic impact; clinically detectable metastases at presentation have a very poor prognosis.
Question 1700
Topic: Bone Tumors
A 40-year-old woman has a symptomatic mass on the anterior aspect of the ankle. She reports no constitutional symptoms. An MRI scan is shown in Figure 12. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Ganglion
Explanation
The MRI scan reveals a lobular mass that is below the vitamin E tablet marker taped to the skin. This is juxtaposed to the tibialis anterior tendon. It is slightly more enhanced than the surrounding subcutaneous fat and is consistent with a ganglion. Osteosarcoma, aneurysmal bone cyst, or unicameral bone cyst all would demonstrate enhancement or pathology in the bone. This is clearly a well-defined soft-tissue mass. Gouty tophi show low to intermediate signal on T1- and T2-weighted images.
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