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Question 1581

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 10-year-old boy with a history of retinoblastoma now reports right knee pain. AP and lateral radiographs are shown in Figures 3a and 3b. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Ewing’s sarcoma
. Primitive neuroectodermal tumor
. Osteosarcoma
. Osteonecrosis
. Osteomyelitis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Osteosarcoma


Explanation

The radiographs show a bone-producing lesion in the femoral diaphysis. The radiographic appearance of small round cell tumors is more permeative with an elevated periosteum and no matrix production. The appearance of this lesion is most consistent with osteosarcoma. Patients who carry the Rb gene are predisposed to osteosarcoma.

Question 1582

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
Figures 47a through 47f show the AP radiograph, bone scan, CT scan, MRI scan, and biopsy specimens of a 30-year-old woman who has had vague left shoulder pain for 1 year. Management should consist of
. curettage.
. radiation therapy.
. radiation therapy and chemotherapy.
. antibiotics.
. wide resection.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. curettage.


Explanation

The histology shows eosinophils with a background of larger cells (Langerhans’ cells). This is consistent with eosinophilic granuloma. Localized sites are best treated with curettage, steroid injection, or observation. Chemotherapy is used only if there is systemic involvement.

Question 1583

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

Figures 79a through 79d are the plain radiographs and axial CT scans of an 80-year-old woman with severe dementia and a newly noted thigh mass. Examination reveals a large, nonmobile anterior thigh mass that is minimally tender. What is the best next treatment step?

. Biopsy
. Chest CT scan
. Observation
. Wide resection
. Marginal resection

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Biopsy


Explanation

Question 1584

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 35-year-old man reports the development of a painful 2-cm nodule on his dorsal wrist over the past 3 years. A surgeon excised the lesion with a presumptive diagnosis of a ganglion cyst. Histology sections from the excision are shown in Figures 11a and 11b. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Ganglion cyst
. Clear cell sarcoma
. Epithelioid sarcoma
. Epidermal inclusion cyst
. Synovial sarcoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Clear cell sarcoma


Explanation

The histologic appearance of the soft-tissue lesion reveals compact nests of cells with a clear cytoplasm surrounded by a delicate border of fibrocollagenous tissue. There can be scattered multinucleated giant cells. This is consistent with a clear cell sarcoma, also called malignant melanoma of soft parts. This tumor is usually positive for S-100 and HMB45 (a melanoma-associated antigen). These tumors are frequently found around the foot and ankle. Similar to epithelioid sarcoma, it is usually intimately bound to tendons or tendon sheaths. Often the tumors are present for many years. The classic histologic appearance of this lesion differentiates it from the other choices.

Question 1585

Topic: Bone Tumors
A 9-year-old girl reports progressive right knee pain. Radiographs are shown in Figures 59a and 59b. Work-up reveals no other sites of disease. Low- and high-power photomicrographs are shown in Figures 59c and 59d. What is the most appropriate treatment?
. Chemotherapy alone
. Surgery alone
. Radiation therapy alone
. Chemotherapy and surgery
. Radiation therapy and surgery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Chemotherapy and surgery


Explanation

This classic case of osteosarcoma illustrates the typical radiographic and histologic characteristics of this disease. The radiographs show an aggressive-appearing lesion of the distal femur. The lesion has both lytic and blastic areas. Periosteal reaction is present in the form of a Codman’s triangle. The radiographs are highly suggestive of osteosarcoma. The photomicrographs show malignant spindle cells that produce osteoid, thus confirming the diagnosis of osteosarcoma. Treatment of osteosarcoma is multimodal including multi-agent chemotherapy and surgery (wide resection or amputation).

Question 1586

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 14-year-old boy has an asymptomatic mass on the right arm. MRI scans and biopsy specimens are shown in Figures 51a through 51d. Immunostaining is positive for desmin. Additional staging studies should include
. a bone scan and thallium scan.
. a regional lymph node and bone marrow biopsy.
. MRI of the brain.
. intravenous pyelogram and renal ultrasound.
. parathyroid hormone and serum calcium levels.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. a regional lymph node and bone marrow biopsy.


Explanation

The patient has rhabdomyosarcoma. Axillary node and bone marrow biopsy are part of the staging because about 12% of patients with rhabdomyosarcoma of the extremity have evidence of lymph nodes metastases at presentation. Bone marrow metastases have been shown to portend a worse prognosis.

Question 1587

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
  • A skeletal survey is more accurate than a bone scan for detecting skeletal involvement in which of the following neoplastic diseases?
. Ewing’s sarcoma
. Osteogenic sarcoma
. Multiple myeloma
. Metastatic prostate carcinoma
. Metastatic breast carcinoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ewing’s sarcoma


Explanation

Multiple Myeloma lesions are cold on bone scan and because of this a skeletal survey is more useful.

Question 1588

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 25-year-old woman has had pain and stiffness in her knee following a motor vehicle accident 9 months ago. The radiograph, CT scan, MRI scan, and biopsy specimen are shown in Figures 53a through 53d. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Osteochondroma
. Osteoblastoma
. Osteomyelitis
. Heterotopic ossification
. Parosteal osteosarcoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Heterotopic ossification


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Heterotopic ossification may occur spontaneously or following trauma. The imaging studies and histology reveal mature fatty bone marrow and trabecular bone. Osteochondromas are cortically based with the medullary canal extending into the lesion. This is not evident in this patient. Also, no obvious cartilage cap is present. Parosteal osteosarcoma commonly occurs in the posterior distal femoral cortex but is ruled out by the lack of the typical fibrous stromal cells forming the low-grade malignant osteoid. The histology and clinical presentation eliminate osteomyelitis and osteoblastoma.

Question 1589

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
In Ewing’s sarcoma, neoplastic properties are thought to be related to a
. environmental toxins.
. a prior history of osteomyelitis.
. a prior history of viral illness.
. a prior history of trauma.
. translocation of chromosomes.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. translocation of chromosomes.


Explanation

In 95% of patients with Ewing’s sarcoma, there is a translocation, t(11;22). This results in EWS/FLI-1 transcription factor that results in tumor cell proliferation. Other mechanisms causing tumor cell proliferation include inactivation of tumor suppressor genes, or activation of proto-oncogenes.

Question 1590

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 36-year-old woman with familial neurofibromatosis has an enlarging mass in the posterior thigh. The lesion has slowly increased in size and is now constantly painful. Pressure on the mass causes dysesthesias in the foot. What does this lesion most likely represent?
. Peripheral nerve sheath tumor
. Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor
. Malignant fibrous histiocytoma
. Liposarcoma
. Synovial sarcoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor


Explanation

The images reveal a large mass in the posterior thigh arising from the sciatic nerve. The lesion is edematous, and the gadolinium image reveals rim enhancement, suggesting necrosis, given that the STIR image is not uniformly bright as would be seen in a cystic lesion. The PET scan has increased uptake, in this case a standard unit value (SUV) of greater than 2.0. These findings are all very suggestive of a malignant process. The history of neurofibromatosis makes a malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor, or neurofibrosarcoma, the most likely diagnosis. The term “peripheral nerve sheath tumor” has replaced neurolemmoma and schwannoma.

Question 1591

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
An axial T1-weighted MRI scan of the pelvis is shown in Figure 35. Which of the following structures is enclosed by the circle?
. Obturator vessels and nerve
. Tendinous origin of the obturator internus muscle
. Tendinous origin of the obturator externus muscle
. Seminal vesicle
. Suprapubic pelvic lymph nodes

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Obturator vessels and nerve


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The obturator vessels and nerve pass along the lateral pelvic wall along the true pelvic brim (nerve lies anterior to the vessels and lies on the obturator internus muscle) and descend into the obturator groove at the upper portion of the obturator foramen.

Question 1592

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
An otherwise healthy 32-year-old man who underwent an uneventful L5-S1 lumbar microdiskectomy 6 weeks ago now reports increasing and severe back pain that awakens him from sleep. Examination reveals a benign-appearing wound, and the neurologic examination is normal. Laboratory studies show an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) of 90 mm/h and a WBC of 9,000/mm3. Plain radiographs are normal. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
. Oral antibiotics for staphylococcus
. Repeat laboratory studies in 1 week to recheck the ESR
. MRI with gadolinium
. Biopsy of the surgical disk space
. Irrigation and debridement of the surgical wound in the operating room

Correct Answer & Explanation

. MRI with gadolinium


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The patient’s history and laboratory studies are very suspicious for a postoperative diskitis. The predominant symptom often is back pain. An ESR of 90 mm/h is considered significantly elevated and normally would be expected to return to near baseline by 2 weeks postoperatively. A normal WBC result is not unusual with postoperative diskitis. Management should consist of an MRI with gadolinium to confirm the diagnosis, followed by a biopsy percutaneously to obtain tissues for pathology and microbiology. Surgical debridement is reserved for patients whose percutaneous biopsy results are negative and a high index of suspicion for diskitis remains, or when management consisting of IV antibiotics, bed rest, and spinal immobilization fails to provide relief. REFERENCES: Garfin SR, Vaccaro AR (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Spine. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1997, pp 257-271. Beaty JH (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 6. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1999, pp 713-721.

Question 1593

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 28-year-old woman has had pain in her hand and mild swelling of the little finger for the past 2 months. A radiograph is shown in Figure 41a, and the biopsy specimen is shown in Figures 41b and 41c. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Osteochondroma
. Osteomyelitis
. Ollier’s disease
. Brown tumor
. Enchondroma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Enchondroma


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The radiographic appearance shows a slightly expansile lesion in the proximal phalanx of the fifth digit typical of an enchondroma. There is a stippled appearance within the bone and no evidence of cortical destruction. The biopsy reveals a cartilage lesion with basophilic cytoplasm. There are some hypercellular areas but no evidence of pleomorphism. Enchondromas in the tubular bones of the hand are usually more cellular than their counterparts in the femur and humerus and should not be considered malignant. No other lesions are noted in the radiograph, so a diagnosis of Ollier’s disease cannot be made. An osteochondroma is a benign surface cartilage tumor. Brown tumor and osteomyelitis can be differentiated from enchondroma based on the histology. REFERENCES: Wold LE, Adler CP, Sim FH, et al: Atlas of Orthopedic Pathology, ed 2. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 2003, p 225. McCarthy EF, Frassica FJ: Pathology of Bone and Joint Disorders with Clinical and Radiographic Correlation. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1998, p 227.

Question 1594

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 9-year-old girl has had bilateral knee and leg pain for the past 2 years. The family has noted increasing deformity in both lower extremities. She is less than the fifth percentile for height. Examination reveals bilateral femoral bowing, mild medial-lateral laxity of the knees, and the deformities shown in the radiograph seen in Figure 3. What is the most likely diagnosis? Review Topic

. Renal osteodystrophy
. Diastrophic dysplasia
. Metaphyseal dysplasia
. Osteogenesis imperfecta
. Fibrous dysplasia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Renal osteodystrophy


Explanation

The widening, bowing, and cupping of the physes indicate some form of metabolic bone disease; therefore, the most likely diagnosis is renal osteodystrophy. The age of onset makes X-linked hypophosphatemic rickets less likely. The ground glass lesions and widening of the medullary canal characteristic of fibrous dysplasia are not present. There are no fractures creating the deformities indicating osteogenesis imperfecta. There is an asymmetry of the deformities that makes diastrophic dysplasia less likely.

Question 1595

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
In 1980, a 32-year-old woman was found to have a right breast mass, and a biopsy revealed adenocarcinoma. She underwent a mastectomy at that time, with no other treatment. Five years later, she noticed a lump in the left breast and underwent a left mastectomy. Seven lymph nodes were positive. In 2006, she now reports hip and thigh pain for the past 3 months. Figures 69a and 69b show AP and lateral radiographs of the femur. A bone scan shows a solitary lesion. Following radiographic staging, what is the next most appropriate step in management?
. Protected weight bearing and radiation therapy
. Intramedullary rodding of the femur with curettage and cementation
. Intramedullary rodding of the femur without curettage and cementation
. Biopsy of the lesion
. Resection and reconstruction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Biopsy of the lesion


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Solitary bone lesions require biopsy, for there is the possibility that the lesion may represent a primary bone sarcoma, which will necessitate a different treatment plan. This is especially true in patients with remote histories of cancer. The most likely cause of a lytic bone lesion in a patient older than age 40 years is a metastatic lesion. REFERENCES: Rougraff BT, Kneisl JS, Simon MA: Skeletal metastases of unknown origin: A prospective study of a diagnostic strategy. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1993;75:1276-1281. Simon MA, Karluk MB: Skeletal metastases of unknown origin: Diagnostic strategy for orthopedic surgeons. Clin Orthop Relat Res 1982;166:96-103.

Question 1596

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
What is the neoplastic cell of origin for this tumor?
. Lymphocyte
. Monocyte
. Macrophage
. Mononuclear phagocyte

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Mononuclear phagocyte


Explanation

Tenosynovial giant-cell tumors are widely known as pigmented villonodular synovitis (PVNS), although this term is misleading because this tumor type is a clonal neoplasm and does not involve an inflammatory process. It often is shown to have a t(1:2)(p13q37) karyotype resulting in CSF1-COL6A3 gene fusion. There are various amounts of mononuclear cells, osteoclastlike giant cells, foamy histiocytes, hemosiderophages, and chronic inflammatory cells. Local recurrences are common, but CSF1R inhibitors are being investigated in studies involving local control improvement and disease regression. Targeted therapy trials to assist in control of the diffuse-type tenosynovial giant-cell tumor (formerly called PVNS) involve the use of monoclonal antibodies that inhibit CSF1R activation. CSF1R-expressing mononuclear phagocytes are affected by these monoclonal antibodies. Tenosynovial giant-cell tumor is characterized by an overexpression of CSF1. CSF1R activation leads to recruitment of CSF1R-expressing cells of the mononuclear phagocyte lineage.

Question 1597

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
Using methylmethacrylate to fill a biopsy hole in the diaphysis of a femur theoretically achieves what purpose?
. Local tumor control by chemical cytotoxic effect
. Local tumor kill from heat generation
. Minimizes tumor contamination
. Decreases rate of wound infection
. Reinforces the bone to prevent fracture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Minimizes tumor contamination


Explanation

Placing cement over a bone biopsy site prevents tumor contamination by controlling hematoma. Even though the use of cement may impart some strength, the femur is still at significant risk for fracture. The use of bone cement in this manner has not been cleared by the FDA, but many physicians feel that it is appropriate when the patient’s health status has been given careful consideration, and the physician has the necessary knowledge and training. The other options are not important reasons to use methylmethacrylate in biopsies.

Question 1598

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

Figures 15a and 15b show the AP and lateral radiographs of the lumbar spine of a 51 year old woman who has had back pain that radiates into the right thigh for the past 3 months. Her medical history is unremarkable except for a mastectomy for breast cancer 12 years ago. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Lymphoma
. Hemangioma
. Osteosarcoma
. TB of the spine
. Metastatic breast carcinoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lymphoma


Explanation

Metastatic disease of the spine occurs in as many as 70% of patients with disseminated cancer and may result in vertebral collapse, spinal instability, and progressive neurologic compromise. Three fourths of these originate from breast, prostate, kidney, or lung carcinoma or myeloma or lymphoma. The vertebral body is affected due to a rich blood supply and sinusoidal vascular distribution. Cord compression is the extrusion of tumor tissue and detritus of bone or disk in the spinal canal following the partial collapse of a vertebral body that has been infiltrated and weakened by a metastatic deposit.

Question 1599

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
Which of the following is considered the treatment of choice for a 3-cm chondroblastoma of the distal femoral epiphysis with no intra-articular extension?
. Observation
. Curettage and bone grafting
. Wide local excision with radiation therapy
. Radiation therapy only
. Radiofrequency ablation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Curettage and bone grafting


Explanation

Curettage and bone grafting typically are the preferred treatment of chondroblastoma, yielding acceptable local recurrence rates of less than 10%. Some surgeons advocate adjuvant therapies such as phenol, liquid nitrogen, or argon beam coagulation. Untreated, these lesions can destroy bone and invade the joint to a significant degree. Large intra-articular lesions may require major joint reconstruction. Wide local excision is rarely required to control the tumor. Radiation therapy is indicated only in unresectable lesions.

Question 1600

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 52-year-old woman reports nagging shoulder pain that has been present for months and is slowly progressive in nature. The patient also reports nocturnal pain and notes that the pain is not activity related. Figures 27a and 27b show the radiograph and bone scan, and Figures 27c through 27e show T1-weighted, T2-weighted, and gadolinium MRI scans, respectively. Based on these findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?
. Aneurysmal bone cyst
. Enchondroma
. Plasmacytoma
. Giant cell tumor
. Chondrosarcoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Chondrosarcoma


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The radiograph reveals a metaphyseal lesion with some stippled mineralization suggesting a chondroid tumor. The bone scan shows increased uptake, beyond what is expected for a simple enchondroma, and beyond the limits of the lesion. The MRI sequences shows a lobular lesion on the T1- and T2-weighted (bright on the T2 sequence) images with inhomogeneous uptake of gadolinium; both findings are typical for a chondroid lesion. The history of pain, the positive bone scan, the age of the patient, the size of the lesion, and the central location (enostotic) of the lesion all suggest a malignant cartilage tumor. The images are not consistent with the other diagnoses. In particular, plasmacytoma is more uniformly bright on T2-weighted images and often has a negative bone scan. REFERENCES: Menendez LR (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Musculoskeletal Tumors. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2002, pp 187-194. Resnick D (ed): Diagnosis of Bone and Joint Disorders. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 2002, pp 3897-3904.