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Question 1561

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

Serum phosphate levels are high. Tumoral calcinosis is a heritable condition that is characterized by periarticular metastatic calcification. Most patients are black, and the inheritance is usually autosomal recessive. Metastatic calcifications occur around joints and in the skin, marrow, teeth, and blood vessels. The periarticular masses may grow quite large and are attached to the fascia, but they are extra-articular. The masses may occur at the shoulder, hip, and elbow. Radiographically: The masses are composed of heavy, amorphous calcification in nodules. Laboratory:

. Serum calcium normal
. Serum alkaline phosphatase normal
. Urine calcium is low
. Serum phosphate is often high When symptomatic, the masses are excised.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Serum calcium normal


Explanation

Which of the following describes the histopathology of tumoral calcinosis:

Question 1562

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A characteristic genetic translocation has been noted in which of the following tumors?
. Ewing’s sarcoma
. Chondrosarcoma
. Neurofibrosarcoma
. Osteosarcoma
. Epithelioid sarcoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ewing’s sarcoma


Explanation

There have been no characteristic gene translocations or rearrangements noted in osteosarcoma, chondrosarcoma, neurofibrosarcoma, or epithelioid sarcoma. In contrast, Ewing’s sarcoma has been noted to have a consistent genetic translocation t(11:22).

Question 1563

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
Further imaging shows pulmonary metastases without an obvious primary tumor of origin and an incomplete fracture of the right distal femur. A decision is made to surgically treat his distal femur fracture. What is the role of establishing a preoperative histologic diagnosis for this patient?
. The distal femoral lesion should undergo needle biopsy first.
. Bone marrow biopsy should be done first.
. Preoperative biopsy is not necessary because a metastatic process is present.
. Biopsy is not necessary if the lesion demonstrates a standardized uptake value (SUV) greater than 3 on fluorodeoxyglucose positron emission tomography (PET) imaging.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Preoperative biopsy is not necessary because a metastatic process is present.


Explanation

This patient has widespread metastatic disease based on bone scan findings. Biopsy before intervention for pathologic lower-extremity fracture likely is not needed in a scenario with numerous bone lesions and pulmonary metastases. The absence of a clear primary tumor of origin suggests this is unlikely to be a renal cell carcinoma for which preoperative embolization would be considered before an intralesional procedure. Tissue should be obtained at the time of surgery. Although an SUV greater than 3 is suspicious for malignancy, activity on PET scan should not influence the need for biopsy in this scenario.

Question 1564

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 23-year-old man has had heel pain and fullness for the past several months. He reports that initially the pain was present only with activity, but more recently the pain has become constant. Figures 53a through 53d show a radiograph, a bone scan, and T2-weighted and gadolinium MRI scans. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Chondroblastoma
. Fibrous dysplasia
. Simple bone cyst
. Aneurysmal bone cyst
. Giant cell tumor

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Aneurysmal bone cyst


Explanation

The imaging studies reveal an expansile lesion with the classic soap bubble appearance that involves most of the calcaneus. The bone scan reveals a very active lesion with intense uptake, and the MRI scans show the classic, loculated appearance of the lesion with multiple fluid-fluid levels. While it is important to rule out telangiectatic osteosarcoma, the most likely diagnosis is an aneurysmal bone cyst. While giant cell tumor might have a similar appearance, the multiple fluid levels in an expansile lesion strongly favor an aneurysmal bone cyst.

Question 1565

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
Figures 10a through 10c show the plain radiograph and MRI scans of a 41-year-old man who has right hip pain. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Giant cell tumor
. Rheumatoid arthritis
. Metastatic carcinoma
. Osteonecrosis
. Transient osteoporosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Transient osteoporosis


Explanation

Transient osteoporosis is a self-limited painful but reversible disorder. Although first described in pregnant women, it is more common in young to middle-aged men. The radiograph shows loss of mineralization in the right hip relative to the left side. There is no osseous destruction or cortical expansion typical of metastasis or giant cell tumor. The process is confined to the femoral side of the joint unlike rheumatoid arthritis, which would be centered in the joint. Osteonecrosis is better defined with sharp but irregularly shaped margins, and there is no double-line sign. The MRI scans reveal diffuse edema in the femoral head and neck that is atypical for osteonecrosis. Transient osteoporosis may recur in the same or opposite hip.

Question 1566

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A healthy 16-year-old boy has had increasing pain in the right knee for the past 3 months. Examination reveals warmth and swelling around the distal femur. Radiographs and an MRI scan are shown in Figures 51a through 51c, and a biopsy specimen is shown in Figure 51d. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Ewing’s sarcoma
. Osteosarcoma
. Rhabdomyosarcoma
. Osteomyelitis
. Malignant fibrous histiocytoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Osteosarcoma


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The radiographs show a bone-producing lesion in the distal femoral metaphysis in this case of classic osteosarcoma presenting in the most common location, the distal femur. The coronal MRI scan reveals a marrow-occupying lesion with extension into the soft tissues. The histology shows osteoid production by pleomorphic cells consistent with an osteosarcoma. Ewing’s sarcoma is a bone tumor characterized by uniform small blue cells on histology. Rhabdomyosarcoma is the most common childhood soft-tissue sarcoma. Osteomyelitis has an inflammatory appearance on histology. Malignant fibrous histiocytoma of bone has a lytic radiographic appearance and a pleomorphic storiform pattern without osteoid on histology.

Question 1567

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
Figure 10 shows the MRI scan of a 56-year-old woman with metastatic breast cancer who now reports progressive paraparesis. Her general health remains good. Treatment should consist of
. posterior spinal fusion for stabilization, followed by radiation therapy of the anterior tumor.
. radiation therapy and a brace.
. chemotherapy, then reevaluation.
. anterior corpectomy and stabilization.
. laminectomy.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. anterior corpectomy and stabilization.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: If the patient’s medical condition and prognosis remain good in the presence of significant and progressive neurologic deficit from cord compression, then the most reliable means of restoring function is via surgical decompression and fusion. Decompression should be directed toward the compressing structure (e.g., anteriorly if the compression is from the anterior side). This procedure can be done via a posterolateral technique, such as costotransversectomy in some cases.

Question 1568

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

Parosteal osteosarcoma

. Chemotherapy has dramatically improved the survival rate of patients with high-grade intramedullary osteosarcoma and Ewingâs tumor. The disease-free survival rate without chemotherapy is less than 20% for patients, whereas with modern multi-agent regimens, the disease-free survival rate approaches 70%. Periosteal osteosarcoma is an intermediate-grade osteosarcoma (risk of pulmonary metastases is 15% to 25%), which is generally treated with the same chemotherapy regimen as high-grade intramedullary osteosarcoma.
. Chemotherapy has been used for a number of high-grade sarcomas with disappointing results: Dedifferentiated chondrosarcoma
. High-grade intramedullary chondrosarcoma Sarcoma following Pagetâs disease
. Chemotherapy has no use with low-grade sarcomas:
. Well-differentiated intramedullary osteosarcoma Parosteal osteosarcoma
. Low-grade intramedullary chondrosarcoma Adamantinoma
. Chordoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Chemotherapy has dramatically improved the survival rate of patients with high-grade intramedullary osteosarcoma and Ewingâs tumor. The disease-free survival rate without chemotherapy is less than 20% for patients, whereas with modern multi-agent regimens, the disease-free survival rate approaches 70%. Periosteal osteosarcoma is an intermediate-grade osteosarcoma (risk of pulmonary metastases is 15% to 25%), which is generally treated with the same chemotherapy regimen as high-grade intramedullary osteosarcoma.


Explanation

Chemotherapy has no role in the treatment of which of the following tumors:

Question 1569

Topic: Bone Tumors
Figure 40 shows the radiograph of a 30-year-old woman who has a painful elbow. Examination reveals a deformed skull, multiple cafe-au-lait spots, and bone deformities. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. McCune-Albright syndrome
. Neurofibromatosis, type I (NF-1)
. Neurofibromatosis, type II (NF-2)
. Paget’s disease
. Ollier’s disease

Correct Answer & Explanation

. McCune-Albright syndrome


Explanation

Findings in patients with McCune-Albright syndrome include polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, multiple cafe-au-lait spots, and precocious puberty. The bone changes in NF-1 resemble nonossifying fibromas, not fibrous dysplasia. NF-2 has little bony change with typical ocular abnormalities. Paget’s disease occurs in older individuals and does not present with cafe-au-lait spots. Ollier’s disease (multiple enchondromatosis) may show bone changes but not the other findings.

Question 1570

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
The use of multiagent adjuvant chemotherapy is associated with a clear survival benefit in which of the following diseases?
. Renal carcinoma
. Osteosarcoma
. Dedifferentiated chondrosarcoma
. Adult soft-tissue sarcoma
. Melanoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Osteosarcoma


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The use of multiagent chemotherapy has been shown to be associated with a survival benefit in patients with osteosarcoma. The use of chemotherapy in adults with soft-tissue sarcoma remains somewhat controversial. It has not been associated with improved survival rates in patients with renal carcinoma, dedifferentiated chondrosarcoma, or melanoma.

Question 1571

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

Figures 233a through 233c are the radiographs and biopsy specimen of a 32-year-old woman who has had progressive ankle pain for 6 months. What is the most appropriate treatment option?

. Radiotherapy alone
. Intralesional curettage
. Intralesional curettage with adjuvants
. Wide surgical resection and radiotherapy
. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy and wide resection

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Radiotherapy alone


Explanation

Question 1572

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
Figures 21a and 21b show the radiograph and CT scan of a 14-year-old patient with thigh pain. The next most appropriate step in management should consist of
. blood cultures.
. oral anti-inflammatory drugs.
. a biopsy.
. MRI.
. a SPECT bone scan.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. oral anti-inflammatory drugs.


Explanation

The radiographs show increased density and reactive bone formation. A faint nidus can be seen on the radiograph but is obvious on the CT scan. The initial therapy for an osteoid osteoma should be oral anti-inflammatory drugs. A biopsy or SPECT bone scan is not indicated because the osteoid osteoma is clearly seen on the CT scan. If the patient fails to respond to nonsurgical therapy, CT-guided radiofrequency ablation or surgical excision is indicated depending on the anatomic location.

Question 1573

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
The risk of local recurrence after surgical resection of a soft-tissue sarcoma is most closely related to
. the size of the tumor.
. the grade of the tumor.
. the site of the tumor.
. the surgical margin.
. radiation therapy.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. the surgical margin.


Explanation

A positive margin is most closely related to subsequent local recurrence. The other factors cited, including the size and site of the tumor, may be related to local recurrence; however, they are more commonly prognostic because of the difficulty in obtaining wide surgical margins about large or proximal tumors. Radiation therapy has been noted to decrease the incidence of recurrence but is not felt to be as important as the surgical margin. The grade of the tumor has more influence on the prevalence of metastatic disease than the incidence of local recurrence.

Question 1574

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 12-year-old girl has had progressive left knee pain for the past 4 months. She reports that the pain is unrelated to activity, and she has no history of fever or recent infections. Examination reveals full range of motion of the knee but tenderness along the medial joint line. Plain radiographs and MRI scans are shown in Figures 39a through 39d. A biopsy specimen of the lesion is shown in Figure 39e. Treatment should include
. curettage.
. systemic antibiotics.
. observation and protected weight bearing.
. chemotherapy.
. radiation therapy.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. curettage.


Explanation

The lesion is a chondroblastoma. The plain radiographs show a well-defined radiolucent lesion in the distal femoral epiphysis of a skeletally immature patient. The margins are well defined, suggesting a benign growth. The epiphysis is an unusual location for bone tumors, except for chondroblastomas. Of all chondroblastomas, 95% are located within the epiphysis. The MRI scans show a punctate appearance that is commonly seen in cartilage lesions. The biopsy specimen shows a chondroid lesion with polygonal chondrocytes. These findings are consistent with a chondroblastoma. The natural history of chondroblastomas is for continued growth and bone destruction if left untreated. Treatment should consist of curettage, with or without the use of physical or chemical adjuvants, and bone grafting.

Question 1575

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
An 18-year-old boy reports increasing pain with weight bearing on his right leg and at night. Examination reveals swelling around the right midcalf. Radiographs and an MRI scan are shown in Figures 13a through 13c, and a biopsy specimen is shown in Figure 13d. What is the preferred treatment?
. Chemotherapy and surgical resection
. Debridement and IV antibiotics
. Chemotherapy alone
. Radiation therapy alone
. Surgical resection alone

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Chemotherapy and surgical resection


Explanation

The findings are consistent with Ewing’s sarcoma. The radiographs reveal a lytic lesion in the diaphysis of the right fibula. There is elevation of the periosteum and evidence of a surrounding soft-tissue mass. The biopsy specimen shows diffuse small round blue cells surrounding the lamellar bone. It is the second most common malignant bone tumor in children. The most common treatment regimen consists of chemotherapy followed by surgical resection and/or radiation therapy. Surgical resection is employed when the lesion can be removed with wide margins and causes less morbidity than radiation therapy.

Question 1576

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
Figures 32a and 32b show the radiographs of an active 13-year-old boy who has persistent left thigh pain and a limp despite a trial of protected weight bearing. Management should consist of
. curettage and bone grafting.
. systemic chemotherapy.
. an intralesional steroid injection.
. en bloc resection with autograft reconstruction.
. low-dose radiation therapy.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. curettage and bone grafting.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The plain radiographs show an eccentric metaphyseal lesion involving a long bone in a skeletally immature patient. The lesion is longer than it is wide, with distinctly lobular outer edges that are sclerotic. These findings are characteristic of a nonossifying fibroma. Small asymptomatic lesions may be followed clinically. Larger lesions that occupy greater than two thirds of the width of the shaft and are located in areas of high mechanical stress such as the femur are more prone to fracture than smaller lesions. Pain is often a sign of impending fracture or the presence of a small fracture that may not be apparent on radiographs. The natural history of the lesion is to resolve over a period of years. The procedure that would allow the patient to return to contact sports is curettage and bone grafting. Intralesional steroid injection has been advocated in the treatment of unicameral bone cysts and eosinophilic granuloma but not nonossifying fibromas. En bloc resection is not indicated for a benign lesion. Low-dose radiation therapy has been used for eosinophilic granuloma but not for nonossifying fibromas. REFERENCES: Walker RN, Green NE, Spindler KP: Stress fractures in skeletally immature patients. J Pediatr Orthop 1996;16:578-584. Arata MA, Peterson HA, Dahlin DC: Pathological fractures through non-ossifying fibromas: Review of the Mayo Clinic experience. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1981;63:980-988.

Question 1577

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 16-year-old girl has had painless swelling in her posterior left arm for the past 4 months. A radiograph, MRI scans, and an incisional biopsy specimen are shown in Figures 43a through 43d. What is the cytogenetic translocation most commonly associated with this tumor?
. (X; 18) (p11; q11)
. (11; 22) (q24; q12)
. (12; 22) (q13; q12)
. (2; 13) (q35; q14)
. (12; 16) (q13; p11)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. (X; 18) (p11; q11)


Explanation

DISCUSSION: This is a case of synovial sarcoma. The radiograph shows some soft-tissue swelling in the upper arm. The MRI scans show a lesion that has increased signal on T2-weighted images and low signal on T1-weighted images. There is a suggestion of a large cystic component to this lesion. The pathology shows a biphasic population of cells, a spindle cell component, and an epithelioid component. Up to 20% of synovial cell sarcomas have areas of cyst formation. The most common cytogenetic translocation with synovial cell sarcoma is X; 18. The 11; 22 translocation is most commonly associated with Ewing’s sarcomas; the 12; 22 translocation is most commonly associated with clear cell sarcomas; the 2; 13 translocation is most commonly associated with alveolar rhabdomyosarcomas, and the 12; 16 translocation is most commonly associated with myxoid liposarcomas. REFERENCES: Kawai A, Woodruff J, Healey JH, et al: SYT-SSX gene fusion as a determinant of morphology and prognosis in synovial sarcoma. New Engl J Med 1998;338:153-160. Sandberg AA: Cytogenetics and molecular genetics of bone and soft tissue tumors. Am J Med Genet 2002;115:189-193.

Question 1578

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
Giant-cell tumor of bone usually involves the epiphysis of long bones. What is the next most common type of tumor involving this anatomical location?
. Conventional chondrosarcoma
. Aneurysmal bone cyst
. Chondroblastoma
. Osteoblastoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Chondroblastoma


Explanation

Giant-cell tumor is the most common lesion involving the epiphysis, although its epicenter is usually in the metaphysis, and in the rare case of giant-cell tumor occurring in a skeletally immature patient, giant-cell tumor is located in the metaphysis. It also can involve the flat bone of the pelvis and sacrum. Chondroblastoma exclusively occurs in the epiphysis of skeletally immature patients. It is more common than the other responses. Although conventional chondrosarcoma does not involve the epiphysis, clear-cell chondrosarcoma involves the epiphysis as well; however, it is rare and less common than chondroblastoma. Aneurysmal bone cyst may occur in the epiphysis; however, it is often seen with other benign tumors such as chondroblastoma or giant-cell tumor. It is less common in this location than chondroblastoma. Osteoblastoma does not classically appear at the epiphysis. It is more commonly seen in the spine or the diaphysis of long bones.

Question 1579

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 66-year-old man reports a 2-week history of worsening low back and leg pain. He reports that his pain is aggravated by lying down and relieved by standing and walking. He notes that he has been losing weight recently and that his pain has been awakening him during the night. His medical history is significant for hypertension, coronary artery disease, and prostate cancer. His physical examination is essentially unremarkable. Lumbar radiographs are within normal limits. What is the most appropriate management for this patient?
. MRI of chest
. Laboratory studies, including a complete blood cell (CBC) count, erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), and urinalysis, PSA, CEA
. Activity alterations to avoid undue back irritation
. Comfort measures, including medications
. Spinal manipulative therapy within the first 6 weeks

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Laboratory studies, including a complete blood cell (CBC) count, erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), and urinalysis, PSA, CEA


Explanation

In the initial assessment of acute low back pain in adults, no diagnostic testing is indicated during the first 4 weeks in the absence of “red flags” for a serious underlying condition. This patient has five “red flags” for a spinal tumor as a possible etiology of his low back pain, including age older than 50 years, constitutional symptoms (recent weight loss), pain worse when supine, severe nighttime pain, and a history of cancer. In the presence of “red flags” for tumor or infection, it is recommended that the clinician obtain a CBC count, ESR, and a urinalysis. If these are within normal limits and suspicions still remain, consider consultation or seek further evidence with a bone scan, radiographs, or additional laboratory studies.

Question 1580

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
Chemotherapy for this condition is
. contraindicated when pathology is benign.
. associated with a high risk for subsequent myelodysplastic syndrome.
. provides dramatic survival benefits.
. provides modest survival benefits.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. provides modest survival benefits.


Explanation

This patient has a dedifferentiated liposarcoma within a preexisting atypical lipomatous tumor. The imaging demonstrates a large fatty mass with increased internal septations proximally (the atypical lipomatous tumor) and a solid enhancing mass distally (the dedifferentiated portion). A biopsy reveals a high-grade liposarcoma. Surgical treatment of a high-grade sarcoma involves wide surgical resection. Radiation decreases local recurrence but does not clearly influence overall survival. The role of chemotherapy in high-grade soft-tissue sarcomas remains investigational; there is a modest (8%-15%) associated improvement in overall survival.