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Question 4541

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 55-year-old man presents with chronic, progressively worsening thigh pain. Radiographs demonstrate a large radiolucent lesion with 'popcorn' calcifications in the proximal femur and prominent endosteal scalloping. Histological evaluation shows lobules of hyaline cartilage with atypical, binucleated cells within lacunae. What is the most important histologic predictor of prognosis and metastasis for this patient's lesion?

. Degree of cellularity and pleomorphism (Histologic Grade)
. Anatomical location of the tumor
. Presence of IDH1/IDH2 mutations
. Volume of calcified matrix
. Expression of S-100 protein

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Degree of cellularity and pleomorphism (Histologic Grade)


Explanation

In chondrosarcoma, histologic grade (based on cellularity, nuclear atypia, and mitotic activity) is the single most reliable predictor of clinical behavior, local recurrence, and metastatic potential. Low-grade lesions rarely metastasize, whereas high-grade lesions have a high metastatic rate.

Question 4542

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 30-year-old woman presents with a slow-growing, painful mass around her ankle. Imaging reveals an extra-articular soft-tissue mass with stippled calcifications. Biopsy demonstrates a biphasic pattern consisting of both epithelial and spindle cells. Cytogenetic testing of the lesion is most likely to reveal which of the following translocations?

. t(11;22)(q24;q12)
. t(12;16)(q13;p11)
. t(X;18)(p11;q11)
. t(2;13)(q35;q14)
. t(9;22)(q22;q12)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(11;22)(q24;q12)


Explanation

The clinical and histological presentation is classic for synovial sarcoma, which frequently demonstrates stippled calcifications on imaging. It is genetically defined by the t(X;18)(p11;q11) translocation, resulting in the SYT-SSX fusion gene.

Question 4543

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 60-year-old man presents with bowel and bladder dysfunction and sacral pain. MRI shows a destructive, lobulated mass centered in the sacrum. Histopathology shows lobules of myxoid tissue containing large cells with vacuolated cytoplasm (physaliferous cells). Immunohistochemistry for this tumor will characteristically be positive for cytokeratin, EMA, S-100, and which of the following highly specific markers?

. CD99
. Brachyury
. MDM2
. INI-1
. STAT6

Correct Answer & Explanation

. CD99


Explanation

This patient has a chordoma, a locally aggressive tumor arising from notochordal remnants. Brachyury is a transcription factor essential for notochord development and is a highly sensitive and specific immunohistochemical marker for chordoma.

Question 4544

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 24-year-old man presents with a nodular lesion on the volar aspect of his finger that has slowly ulcerated, mimicking a chronic infection or granuloma. Biopsy reveals epithelioid and spindle cells arranged in a nodular pattern with central necrosis. Immunohistochemistry demonstrates a loss of SMARCB1 (INI1) expression. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Epithelioid hemangioendothelioma
. Synovial sarcoma
. Epithelioid sarcoma
. Nodular fasciitis
. Squamous cell carcinoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Epithelioid hemangioendothelioma


Explanation

Epithelioid sarcoma often presents in young adults as a superficial nodule in the distal extremities that can ulcerate. It is characterized molecularly by the loss of INI1 (SMARCB1) protein expression on immunohistochemistry.

Question 4545

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 28-year-old female presents with a palpable, painless mass on the posterior aspect of her distal thigh. Radiographs demonstrate a dense, lobulated, ossified mass attached to the posterior cortex of the distal femur with a 'string sign' (radiolucent cleft). Biopsy confirms a low-grade spindle cell stroma interspersed with well-formed woven bone trabeculae. Which genetic alteration is characteristic of this tumor?

. H3F3A mutation
. Amplification of MDM2 and CDK4
. GNAS mutation
. USP6 rearrangement
. EXT1 mutation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. H3F3A mutation


Explanation

Parosteal osteosarcoma is a low-grade, surface osteosarcoma typically found on the posterior distal femur. It is characterized genetically by ring chromosomes leading to the amplification of the MDM2 and CDK4 genes on chromosome 12q13-15.

Question 4546

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 12-year-old girl is evaluated for a pathological fracture of the proximal femur. Radiographs reveal a large, diaphyseal expansile lesion with a 'ground-glass' matrix and a 'shepherd's crook' deformity. A biopsy shows irregular, C-shaped trabeculae of woven bone lacking prominent osteoblastic rimming in a fibrous stroma. What is the underlying molecular mechanism of this disorder?

. Constitutive activation of adenylyl cyclase via Gs-alpha protein mutation
. Loss of function of the neurofibromin 1 protein
. Defective degradation of beta-catenin
. Overexpression of colony-stimulating factor 1 (CSF1)
. Impaired processing of type I collagen

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Constitutive activation of adenylyl cyclase via Gs-alpha protein mutation


Explanation

Fibrous dysplasia is caused by a post-zygotic somatic missense mutation in the GNAS gene, leading to an inherently active Gs-alpha protein. This causes constitutive activation of adenylyl cyclase and high levels of intracellular cAMP, altering osteoblast differentiation.

Question 4547

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 45-year-old man undergoes excision of a large, deep soft-tissue mass in his thigh. Pathology reveals a uniform proliferation of primitive mesenchymal cells, small signet-ring lipoblasts, and a prominent plexiform ('chicken-wire') capillary network within a myxoid stroma. Which cytogenetic abnormality is pathognomonic for this tumor?

. t(12;16) FUS-DDIT3
. t(11;22) EWSR1-FLI1
. t(2;13) PAX3-FOXO1
. t(X;18) SYT-SSX
. t(17;22) COL1A1-PDGFB

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(12;16) FUS-DDIT3


Explanation

Myxoid liposarcoma is characterized histologically by a myxoid stroma, lipoblasts, and a plexiform capillary network. It is defined by the t(12;16)(q13;p11) translocation, which creates the FUS-DDIT3 (or FUS-CHOP) fusion transcript.

Question 4548

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 32-year-old man presents with chronic anterior tibial pain. Radiographs show a multiloculated, eccentric, osteolytic lesion in the anterior diaphysis of the tibia. Histopathology demonstrates a biphasic tumor with nests of basaloid epithelial cells surrounded by an osteofibrous stroma. Immunohistochemistry is positive for broad-spectrum cytokeratins. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Osteofibrous dysplasia
. Adamantinoma
. Ewing sarcoma
. Non-ossifying fibroma
. Chondromyxoid fibroma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Osteofibrous dysplasia


Explanation

Adamantinoma is a low-grade malignant bone tumor that almost exclusively occurs in the anterior tibia. It exhibits a distinct biphasic histology with cytokeratin-positive epithelial cells and a fibrous stroma.

Question 4549

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 5-year-old boy presents with anterior bowing of the tibia. Imaging shows a radiolucent, intracortical lesion along the anterior tibial diaphysis. Biopsy reveals fibroblastic tissue with trabeculae of woven bone that are characteristically rimmed by active, plump osteoblasts. Cytokeratin staining is negative. Patients with this condition require clinical follow-up primarily to monitor for progression into which of the following entities?

. Osteosarcoma
. Adamantinoma
. Fibrosarcoma
. Chondrosarcoma
. Ewing sarcoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Osteosarcoma


Explanation

The lesion described is osteofibrous dysplasia (OFD), distinguished from fibrous dysplasia by the prominent osteoblastic rimming of bone trabeculae. OFD can be contiguous with or progress to adamantinoma, thus requiring careful observation.

Question 4550

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 40-year-old man presents with hip pain. Radiographs reveal a well-defined lytic lesion in the epiphysis of the proximal femur. Biopsy demonstrates sheets of cells with abundant, clear cytoplasm and distinct cell membranes, interspersed with areas of woven bone and chondroid matrix. What is the most appropriate management for this lesion?

. Extended intralesional curettage with phenol and bone grafting
. Wide surgical resection
. Radiation therapy
. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by wide resection
. Observation with serial radiographs

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Extended intralesional curettage with phenol and bone grafting


Explanation

Clear cell chondrosarcoma is a low-grade malignant tumor that uniquely prefers the epiphysis of long bones in adults (unlike conventional chondrosarcoma or chondroblastoma). Being a chondrosarcoma, it is resistant to chemotherapy and radiation, making wide surgical resection the treatment of choice to prevent local recurrence.

Question 4551

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 12-year-old boy is found to have an incidental eccentric, multiloculated, radiolucent lesion with a sclerotic rim in the distal femoral metaphysis following minor trauma. A biopsy of a similar lesion would characteristically demonstrate spindle cells in a storiform pattern, multinucleated giant cells, and lipid-laden foamy macrophages. Multiple such lesions, combined with café-au-lait spots, are associated with which of the following syndromes?
. McCune-Albright syndrome
. Mazabraud syndrome
. Jaffe-Campanacci syndrome
. Ollier disease
. Maffucci syndrome

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Jaffe-Campanacci syndrome


Explanation

The lesion is a non-ossifying fibroma (NOF). The association of multiple NOFs with café-au-lait macules, mental retardation, and cardiovascular anomalies is known as Jaffe-Campanacci syndrome.

Question 4552

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 68-year-old man presents with severe back pain and fatigue. Radiographs show multiple punched-out lytic lesions in his skull and vertebrae. Laboratory studies reveal hypercalcemia and a monoclonal spike on serum protein electrophoresis. A bone marrow biopsy confirms the diagnosis. Which immunohistochemical marker is characteristically strongly positive on the neoplastic cells?

. CD1a
. CD138
. CD99
. CD34
. S-100

Correct Answer & Explanation

. CD1a


Explanation

The patient has multiple myeloma, a plasma cell dyscrasia. CD138 (syndecan-1) is a highly specific and sensitive cell surface marker for plasma cells and is classically positive in multiple myeloma.

Question 4553

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 35-year-old woman presents with chronic knee swelling, pain, and catching. MRI demonstrates a large, nodular intra-articular mass with dark signal intensity on T1 and T2-weighted images due to hemosiderin deposition. A biopsy confirms tenosynovial giant cell tumor (pigmented villonodular synovitis). What is the underlying molecular pathogenesis driving the proliferation of this lesion?

. Overexpression of CSF1 due to a t(1;2) translocation
. Inactivation of the PTEN tumor suppressor
. Overexpression of MDM2 due to gene amplification
. Mutation of the H3F3A histone gene
. Rearrangement of the USP6 gene

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Overexpression of CSF1 due to a t(1;2) translocation


Explanation

Tenosynovial giant cell tumor (PVNS) is driven by a t(1;2)(p13;q37) translocation that fuses the CSF1 gene to a highly active promoter. This causes an overproduction of CSF1 (M-CSF), which recruits non-neoplastic macrophages and multinucleated giant cells that form the bulk of the tumor.

Question 4554

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 40-year-old male with a history of numerous cutaneous neurofibromas and café-au-lait spots presents with a rapidly enlarging, painful mass in his sciatic nerve. Biopsy reveals a highly cellular, pleomorphic spindle cell tumor with brisk mitotic activity and geographic necrosis. Immunohistochemistry shows patchy, weak S-100 positivity. The malignant transformation in this patient is most closely linked to loss of heterozygosity in which of the following?
. NF1 gene on chromosome 17
. NF2 gene on chromosome 22
. TP53 gene on chromosome 17
. APC gene on chromosome 5
. PTEN gene on chromosome 10

Correct Answer & Explanation

. NF1 gene on chromosome 17


Explanation

This patient has a Malignant Peripheral Nerve Sheath Tumor (MPNST) arising in the setting of Neurofibromatosis type 1. This condition is caused by mutations in the NF1 gene on chromosome 17q11.2, which encodes the tumor suppressor protein neurofibromin.

Question 4555

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 4-year-old boy presents with a painful, lytic lesion in the skull vault. Biopsy demonstrates a proliferation of mononuclear histiocyte-like cells with grooved, 'coffee-bean' nuclei, admixed with eosinophils. Electron microscopy identifies characteristic tennis-racket-shaped cytoplasmic organelles. Recent targeted therapies for this disease successfully inhibit which of the following commonly mutated kinases?

. BCR-ABL
. BRAF
. c-KIT
. ALK
. EGFR

Correct Answer & Explanation

. BCR-ABL


Explanation

The clinical and histological features describe Langerhans cell histiocytosis (LCH), characterized by Birbeck granules on EM. More than 50% of LCH cases harbor an activating BRAF V600E mutation, making BRAF inhibitors highly effective in refractory disease.

Question 4556

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 6-year-old girl presents with a rapidly expanding soft tissue mass in her forearm. Biopsy reveals sheets of primitive small round blue cells with prominent fibrovascular septa lacking central cellularity, creating an 'alveolar' pattern. Strong desmin and myogenin positivity is noted. Which specific chromosomal translocation is most frequently identified in this malignancy?

. t(11;22) EWS-FLI1
. t(X;18) SYT-SSX
. t(2;13) PAX3-FOXO1
. t(12;16) FUS-DDIT3
. t(9;22) BCR-ABL

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(11;22) EWS-FLI1


Explanation

Alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma is a highly aggressive soft tissue sarcoma in pediatric populations. It is molecularly characterized by the t(2;13)(q35;q14) translocation resulting in the PAX3-FOXO1 fusion gene, which correlates with a poorer prognosis compared to embryonal variants.

Question 4557

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 28-year-old male presents with a slowly enlarging, painless mass around his ankle. MRI shows a soft tissue mass adjacent to the Achilles tendon. Core biopsy reveals a biphasic tumor with both epithelial-like glandular structures and uniform spindle cells. Which of the following cytogenetic abnormalities is pathognomonic for this tumor?

. t(X;18)(p11;q11)
. t(12;16)(q13;p11)
. t(2;13)(q35;q14)
. t(11;22)(q24;q12)
. t(12;22)(q13;q12)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(X;18)(p11;q11)


Explanation

This patient has a synovial sarcoma, which classically occurs in the extremities of young adults and can exhibit biphasic histology. The pathognomonic translocation is t(X;18)(p11;q11), which fuses the SS18 (SYT) gene with an SSX gene.

Question 4558

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 65-year-old man presents with dull pelvic pain. Radiographs reveal a bulky, destructive lesion in the ilium with 'ring-and-arc' calcifications. Biopsy demonstrates atypical chondrocytes with binucleation and permeation of the host trabecular bone. Mutations in which of the following genes are most frequently implicated in the pathogenesis of this primary bone tumor?

. EXT1
. GNAS
. IDH1 and IDH2
. H3F3A
. RB1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. EXT1


Explanation

The clinical and radiographic presentation is consistent with a conventional chondrosarcoma. Mutations in the isocitrate dehydrogenase genes (IDH1 and IDH2) are found in over 50% of conventional central chondrosarcomas.

Question 4559

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 55-year-old woman complains of chronic sacral pain and bowel dysfunction. MRI shows a midline, destructive sacral mass. Biopsy reveals lobules of large, vacuolated cells with bubbly cytoplasm arranged in a myxoid stroma. Immunohistochemistry is positive for S100, cytokeratin, and a highly specific nuclear transcription factor. What is this specific immunohistochemical marker?

. Brachyury
. SATB2
. CD99
. MUC4
. INI-1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Brachyury


Explanation

This lesion is a chordoma, characterized histologically by physaliferous (bubbly) cells. Brachyury is a crucial transcription factor for notochord development and is a highly sensitive and specific immunohistochemical marker for chordoma.

Question 4560

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 6-year-old boy presents with back pain. Radiographs demonstrate vertebra plana of T8. A biopsy of the vertebral body shows a proliferation of mononuclear cells with folded, 'coffee-bean' nuclei, admixed with numerous eosinophils. These neoplastic cells are most likely to harbor a mutation in which of the following?

. NRAS
. BRAF V600E
. TP53
. PTEN
. CTNNB1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. NRAS


Explanation

The patient's presentation and histology (coffee-bean nuclei, eosinophils) are classic for Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis (LCH). Approximately 50-60% of LCH cases are driven by an activating BRAF V600E mutation.