This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 10. Pathology and Oncology. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 4521
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 15-year-old boy presents with a rapidly growing, deep soft tissue mass in his forearm. Biopsy reveals a dense proliferation of primitive small round blue cells. The cells are divided into discrete nests by fibrous septa, with central discohesion of cells creating spaces that mimic pulmonary alveoli. Which genetic fusion is most characteristic of this aggressive sarcoma?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. PAX3-FOXO1
Explanation
The histology is classic for Alveolar Rhabdomyosarcoma, characterized by small round blue cells arranged in pseudo-alveolar spaces. It is highly associated with the t(2;13) translocation forming the PAX3-FOXO1 fusion gene, or less commonly t(1;13) forming PAX7-FOXO1. EWS-FLI1 is seen in Ewing Sarcoma.
Question 4522
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 30-year-old female presents with a painless, slow-growing mass on the posterior aspect of the distal femur. Radiographs reveal a dense, heavily ossified mass broadly attached to the posterior cortex. Notably, a thin radiolucent line ('string sign') separates a portion of the tumor from the underlying cortex.
Histologically, the lesion consists of low-grade spindle cells interspersed among parallel trabeculae of woven and lamellar bone. Which genetic abnormality is characteristic of this tumor?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. MDM2 and CDK4 amplification
Explanation
The clinical, radiographic (posterior distal femur, string sign), and histologic (low-grade spindle cells with mature bone trabeculae) findings are classic for Parosteal Osteosarcoma, a low-grade surface osteosarcoma. Like well-differentiated liposarcomas, parosteal osteosarcomas are characterized genetically by supernumerary ring chromosomes leading to amplification of the 12q13-15 region, specifically amplifying MDM2 and CDK4.
Question 4523
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 35-year-old male presents with a painless, slowly enlarging swelling over his right shin. Radiographs reveal an eccentric, multi-loculated osteolytic lesion in the anterior cortex of the tibial diaphysis. Biopsy demonstrates a biphasic tumor with nests of epithelial cells surrounded by a bland fibrous stroma. Which of the following immunohistochemical markers is most characteristically positive in the neoplastic cellular nests of this lesion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Cytokeratin
Explanation
The clinical and histological presentation is classic for Adamantinoma. Adamantinoma typically occurs in the anterior cortex of the tibial diaphysis in young adults. Histologically, it has a biphasic appearance with epithelial cells interspersed in a fibrous stroma. The epithelial cells are strongly positive for cytokeratins (CK14, CK19). CD99 is for Ewing sarcoma, S-100 for neural/chondroid tumors, and Desmin/SMA for myogenic tumors.
Question 4524
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 42-year-old male presents with persistent shoulder pain. Radiographs show a lytic lesion in the proximal humeral epiphysis. Histological examination reveals sheets of neoplastic cells with abundant clear cytoplasm, distinct cell membranes, scattered osteoclast-like multinucleated giant cells, and areas of chondroid matrix. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Chondroblastoma
Explanation
Clear cell chondrosarcoma is a rare, low-grade malignant bone tumor that characteristically involves the epiphysis of long bones (typically proximal femur or humerus) in adults (30-50 years). Histologically, it shows large cells with clear cytoplasm (glycogen-rich), interspersed giant cells, and islands of chondroid matrix. While Chondroblastoma is also epiphyseal and contains giant cells, it occurs in skeletally immature patients and features "chicken-wire" calcification rather than extensive clear cells. Metastatic RCC has clear cells but lacks chondroid matrix.
Question 4525
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
An 8-year-old boy presents with polyuria and a solitary lytic skull lesion. Biopsy of the lesion shows sheets of large, pale mononuclear cells with grooved (coffee-bean) nuclei, mixed with eosinophils. Electron microscopy reveals Birbeck granules. Which of the following immunohistochemical profiles best characterizes the lesional cells?
The patient has Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis (LCH), likely presenting as Hand-Schüller-Christian triad (diabetes insipidus, exophthalmos, lytic skull lesions). The characteristic cells are Langerhans cells, which possess grooved nuclei and Birbeck granules (tennis-racket shaped) on EM. Immunophenotypically, they are uniformly positive for S-100, CD1a, and CD207 (Langerin).
Question 4526
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 25-year-old male presents with a slow-growing soft tissue mass in the plantar aspect of his foot. Radiographs show a soft tissue density with focal stippled calcifications. Biopsy reveals a biphasic tumor consisting of spindle cells and glandular epithelial structures. Which of the following translocations is diagnostic for this tumor?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. t(11;22)(q24;q12)
Explanation
The diagnosis is Synovial Sarcoma. Despite its name, it rarely arises within a joint, often occurring in periarticular soft tissues of the extremities (especially foot/ankle). Radiographs show calcifications in about 30% of cases. The pathognomonic translocation is t(X;18)(p11;q11), leading to the SYT-SSX fusion gene. t(11;22) is Ewing sarcoma; t(12;16) is Myxoid liposarcoma; t(2;13) is Alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma; t(9;22) is Extraskeletal myxoid chondrosarcoma.
Question 4527
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 30-year-old female presents with recurrent, painful swelling of her knee. Joint aspiration yields brownish fluid. MRI reveals a thickened synovium with prominent blooming artifact on gradient-echo sequences. The pathogenesis of this condition is primarily driven by a t(1;2) translocation leading to the overexpression of which of the following?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Receptor activator of nuclear factor kappa-B ligand (RANKL)
Explanation
The clinical picture and MRI (blooming artifact indicating hemosiderin) are classic for Pigmented Villonodular Synovitis (PVNS), also known as Tenosynovial Giant Cell Tumor (TGCT). The driver mutation is a t(1;2) translocation involving the COL6A3 and CSF1 genes, leading to an overproduction of CSF1 (M-CSF). This attracts a massive non-neoplastic inflammatory infiltrate of macrophages and multinucleated giant cells, which make up the bulk of the tumor mass.
Question 4528
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 62-year-old male presents with chronic constipation and lower back pain. Imaging reveals a large, destructive, midline mass in the sacrum. Biopsy demonstrates lobules of large cells with prominent intracytoplasmic vacuoles (physaliferous cells) in a myxoid background. Which immunohistochemical marker is highly sensitive and specific for distinguishing this tumor from chondrosarcoma?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Cytokeratin
Explanation
The diagnosis is Chordoma, a primary malignant bone tumor arising from notochordal remnants, most commonly located in the sacrum or clivus. It features 'physaliferous' (bubbly) cells. While chordomas, like chondrosarcomas, can be positive for S-100, Brachyury (a transcription factor crucial for notochord development) is highly sensitive and specific for chordoma and differentiates it from chondrosarcoma.
Question 4529
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 32-year-old male presents with a slowly enlarging, ulcerated nodule on the volar aspect of his wrist. Initial biopsy was misinterpreted as a necrotizing granuloma. Re-evaluation reveals a proliferation of plump epithelioid cells surrounding central areas of necrosis. Immunohistochemistry shows loss of nuclear expression of INI1 (SMARCB1). What is the diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Rheumatoid nodule
Explanation
Epithelioid sarcoma classically presents in the distal extremities (hand/wrist) of young adults as a firm, slow-growing nodule that may ulcerate. Histologically, it exhibits a nodular pattern of epithelioid cells surrounding central necrosis, closely mimicking a benign granuloma (like a rheumatoid nodule or caseating granuloma). The diagnostic molecular hallmark is the loss of INI1 (SMARCB1) nuclear expression.
Question 4530
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 16-year-old boy presents with mild, chronic knee pain. Radiographs demonstrate an eccentric, sharply circumscribed, well-demarcated osteolytic lesion with a sclerotic margin in the metaphysis of the proximal tibia. Histology shows a lobulated architecture with hypocellular centers containing stellate/spindle cells in a myxoid stroma, and hypercellular peripheries containing multinucleated osteoclast-like giant cells. What is the diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Non-ossifying fibroma
Explanation
Chondromyxoid fibroma (CMF) is a rare, benign cartilaginous tumor. It characteristically presents as an eccentric metaphyseal lytic lesion with a sclerotic rim in the lower extremity (especially proximal tibia). Histologically, it is highly characteristic: distinct lobules with myxoid/chondroid hypocellular centers containing stellate cells, and hypercellular fibrous septa/peripheries housing osteoclast-like giant cells. Chondroblastoma is epiphyseal. NOF is cortical and purely fibroblastic/histiocytic.
Question 4531
Topic: Bone Tumors
A 15-year-old male undergoes curettage of a 3 cm lytic lesion located exclusively in the greater tuberosity epiphysis of the proximal humerus. Histological analysis reveals sheets of mononuclear cells with characteristic nuclear grooves, prominent eosinophilic cytoplasm, and focal areas of fine, intercellular pericellular calcifications. Molecular testing of this lesion is most likely to reveal a mutation in which of the following genes?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. GNAS
Explanation
The lesion is a Chondroblastoma (epiphyseal location in a teenager, mononuclear cells with grooved nuclei, and "chicken-wire" pericellular calcification). Almost all chondroblastomas harbor a highly specific mutation in the H3F3A gene, specifically an H3.3 K36M substitution. A different substitution in the same gene, H3.3 G34W, is characteristic of Giant Cell Tumor of Bone. GNAS is associated with fibrous dysplasia. EXT1/EXT2 with osteochondromas.
Question 4532
Topic: Bone Tumors
A 55-year-old male is referred for an asymptomatic calcified lesion discovered incidentally on a radiograph of his proximal humerus. The radiologist suggests distinguishing between an enchondroma and a low-grade (Grade 1) central chondrosarcoma. Which of the following MRI or radiographic findings is the most reliable indicator favoring a diagnosis of low-grade chondrosarcoma over enchondroma?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Popcorn-like intralesional calcifications
Explanation
Differentiating enchondroma from low-grade central chondrosarcoma is notoriously difficult. Radiographic features that suggest malignancy (low-grade chondrosarcoma) include deep endosteal scalloping (>2/3 of the cortical thickness), cortical thickening, soft tissue extension, and pain (clinical feature). Both lesions can have popcorn calcifications, metaphyseal/diaphyseal locations, and lobular T2 hyperintensity. Size >5 cm favors malignancy, so <4 cm favors enchondroma.
Question 4533
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 48-year-old female presents with generalized weakness, recurrent nephrolithiasis, and bilateral multi-focal lytic bone lesions. A biopsy of a femoral lesion demonstrates a highly vascularized stroma containing plump spindle cells, areas of hemorrhage, and clusters of osteoclast-like multinucleated giant cells. Which of the following laboratory profiles is most likely to be found in this patient?
The clinical scenario (stones, bones, groans) and the histology (hemorrhage, spindle cells, giant cells) describe a Brown Tumor (osteitis fibrosa cystica) resulting from primary hyperparathyroidism. Brown tumors are non-neoplastic, reactive lesions mimicking giant cell tumors. Primary hyperparathyroidism is characterized by elevated parathyroid hormone (PTH), hypercalcemia, and hypophosphatemia. The "brown" color macroscopically is due to hemosiderin from hemorrhage.
Question 4534
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 22-year-old female presents with a slow-growing, painless mass deep in the vastus lateralis. Staging reveals multiple small brain metastases. Biopsy of the primary tumor shows large, polygonal cells with abundant granular eosinophilic cytoplasm arranged in a nested, pseudoalveolar pattern. PAS staining reveals diastase-resistant rhomboid crystals in the cytoplasm. What is the specific genetic alteration driving this tumor?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. t(12;16) resulting in FUS-DDIT3 fusion
Explanation
The diagnosis is Alveolar Soft Part Sarcoma (ASPS). It typically affects young adults, often arising in the deep tissues of the thigh/leg. It has a high propensity for early metastasis to the brain and lungs. Histologically, it shows large cells with granular eosinophilic cytoplasm in pseudoalveolar nests, containing PAS-positive, diastase-resistant, rhomboid-shaped crystals. The pathognomonic mutation is an unbalanced translocation der(17)t(X;17)(p11;q25), yielding an ASPSCR1-TFE3 fusion protein.
Question 4535
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 52-year-old male undergoes MRI for chronic lumbar radiculopathy. An incidental lesion is noted in the L3 vertebral body. Sagittal T1- and T2-weighted MRI both show high signal intensity in the lesion, and axial CT shows a "polka-dot" pattern of thickened trabeculae. What is the most appropriate management for this specific lesion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Immediate CT-guided core needle biopsy
Explanation
The lesion is a vertebral Hemangioma. It is the most common benign tumor of the spine. The radiographic findings are pathognomonic: a "corduroy" or vertically striated appearance on lateral plain films/sagittal CT, a "polka-dot" pattern on axial CT (representing thickened vertical trabeculae in cross-section), and high signal intensity on both T1 and T2-weighted MRI (due to fat content interspersed with vascular channels). Since it is incidental and asymptomatic, observation is the standard of care.
Question 4536
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 6-year-old boy presents with painless anterolateral bowing of his left tibia. Radiographs show multiple anterior intracortical lytic lesions in the tibial diaphysis. Histology shows a fibroblastic stroma surrounding trabeculae of woven bone that are lined by a prominent layer of active osteoblasts. No epithelial cells are identified on extensive sectioning. This lesion has a known clinical association with, and must be carefully distinguished from, which of the following malignancies?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Osteosarcoma
Explanation
The diagnosis is Osteofibrous Dysplasia (Campanacci disease). It occurs almost exclusively in the tibia and fibula of children <10 years, causing anterolateral bowing and anterior intracortical lytic lesions. Histologically, it resembles fibrous dysplasia but is distinguished by the presence of prominent osteoblastic rimming around the bone trabeculae. Osteofibrous dysplasia is intimately related to Adamantinoma (which occurs in older patients in the exact same location) and some consider it a precursor or a regressive form. Some cases thought to be OFD are actually "differentiated adamantinomas" if epithelial cells are found.
Question 4537
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 68-year-old male with a history of fatigue and normocytic anemia presents with severe, acute onset back pain. Radiographs reveal multiple 'punched-out' lytic lesions in his skull and a compression fracture of T10. Serum protein electrophoresis (SPEP) demonstrates an M-spike. If a biopsy of the skull lesion were performed, what would be the most prominent immunohistochemical finding?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. CD20 and CD79a positivity in atypical giant cells
Explanation
The diagnosis is Multiple Myeloma, characterized by CRAB symptoms (hyperCalcemia, Renal involvement, Anemia, Bone lytic lesions/back pain) and a monoclonal paraproteinemia (M-spike). The lytic bone lesions are plasmacytomas, consisting of clonal plasma cells. Neoplastic plasma cells characteristically have "clock-face" eccentric nuclei with a perinuclear halo (Golgi zone) and are immunohistochemically positive for CD138 (syndecan-1) and CD38.
Question 4538
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 32-year-old female presents with a slowly enlarging, hard mass on the posterior aspect of her distal femur. Plain radiographs display a heavily ossified, dense, lobulated mass arising from the cortex, with a radiolucent line (cleft) separating parts of the tumor from the underlying bone cortex. Histological examination shows bland, well-differentiated spindle cells arranged between parallel trabeculae of mature woven and lamellar bone. Molecular analysis is most likely to show amplification of which genomic region?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 12q13-15 (containing MDM2 and CDK4)
Explanation
The clinical, radiographic (posterior distal femur, dense mass, "string sign" or radiolucent cleft), and histologic features (low cellularity, bland spindle cells, parallel trabeculae) are classic for Parosteal Osteosarcoma, a low-grade surface osteosarcoma. Biologically, parosteal osteosarcoma (like low-grade central osteosarcoma and well-differentiated liposarcoma) is characterized by supernumerary ring chromosomes containing amplified sequences of the 12q13-15 region, leading to overexpression of MDM2 and CDK4.
Question 4539
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
An 18-year-old female presents with a deep thigh mass. Biopsy reveals a primitive, small round cell tumor. Molecular analysis demonstrates a t(11;22)(q24;q12) translocation resulting in an EWSR1-FLI1 fusion transcript. Although this tumor typically arises in bone, when it presents as a primary soft tissue mass (extraskeletal), it must be differentiated from which morphologically identical tumor that belongs to the same family and shares the identical genetic driver?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma
Explanation
Ewing sarcoma and Primitive Neuroectodermal Tumor (PNET) belong to the same Ewing Sarcoma Family of Tumors (ESFT). They are morphologically and genetically virtually identical, both driven by the t(11;22) translocation creating the EWSR1-FLI1 fusion. Historically, tumors showing more neural differentiation (Homer-Wright rosettes, expression of neural markers) were termed PNETs, while more undifferentiated ones were called Ewing sarcoma. They are now considered a single biologic spectrum.
Question 4540
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 15-year-old boy presents with knee pain and swelling. Radiographs reveal a lytic and blastic lesion in the distal femoral metaphysis with a 'sunburst' periosteal reaction. Biopsy demonstrates malignant cells producing osteoid matrix. Which of the following tumor suppressor genes are most frequently inactivated in the pathogenesis of this primary bone tumor?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. BRCA1 and BRCA2
Explanation
Conventional osteosarcoma is highly associated with mutations in the RB1 and TP53 tumor suppressor genes. Inactivation of these pathways leads to unchecked cellular proliferation and is foundational to its pathogenesis.
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