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Question 4301

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 25-year-old male presents with a long-standing history of anterior leg pain. Radiographs reveal an eccentrically located, multi-loculated, purely lytic lesion in the anterior tibial diaphysis. Biopsy demonstrates a biphasic tumor with nests of epithelial cells surrounded by a fibrous stroma. Immunohistochemistry is strongly positive for cytokeratin.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Osteosarcoma
. Ewing Sarcoma
. Adamantinoma
. Osteofibrous Dysplasia
. Fibrous Dysplasia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Adamantinoma


Explanation

The clinical presentation and classic anterior tibial diaphyseal location are hallmark for adamantinoma. It is a low-grade malignant bone tumor. Histologically, it presents with an epithelial component that stains positive for cytokeratin, distinguishing it from osteofibrous dysplasia (which is often considered a benign precursor but lacks frank cytokeratin-positive epithelial nests on standard evaluation, though scattered positive cells may exist). Wide surgical resection is the treatment of choice.

Question 4302

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 45-year-old woman presents with progressive diffuse muscle weakness and bone pain over the past year. Laboratory studies reveal severe hypophosphatemia, normocalcemia, normal PTH levels, and markedly elevated alkaline phosphatase. Further workup identifies a small soft tissue mass in her thigh. Secretion of which of the following substances by this tumor is primarily responsible for her metabolic derangement?

. Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
. Fibroblast growth factor 23 (FGF-23)
. 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D
. Calcitonin
. PTH-related peptide (PTHrP)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Fibroblast growth factor 23 (FGF-23)


Explanation

This clinical scenario describes tumor-induced osteomalacia (TIO), a paraneoplastic syndrome most commonly caused by a phosphaturic mesenchymal tumor. The tumor secretes Fibroblast Growth Factor 23 (FGF-23), which inhibits sodium-phosphate cotransporters in the proximal renal tubule (leading to phosphate wasting) and inhibits 1-alpha-hydroxylase (decreasing active vitamin D levels). Resection of the tumor usually cures the metabolic defect.

Question 4303

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 28-year-old male presents with a slowly enlarging soft tissue mass near his knee joint. MRI shows a heterogenous, well-circumscribed juxta-articular soft tissue mass that does not enter the joint space. Biopsy confirms a biphasic morphology with spindle cells and epithelial-like glandular structures.

Which specific chromosomal translocation is diagnostic for this malignancy?

. t(11;22)(q24;q12)
. t(X;18)(p11;q11)
. t(12;16)(q13;p11)
. t(2;13)(q35;q14)
. t(12;22)(q13;q12)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(X;18)(p11;q11)


Explanation

The vignette describes a synovial sarcoma, which frequently occurs as a juxta-articular mass in young adults (rarely strictly intra-articular). The pathognomonic genetic alteration is the t(X;18)(p11;q11) translocation, which results in the SYT-SSX fusion gene. t(11;22) is Ewing sarcoma, t(12;16) is myxoid liposarcoma, t(2;13) is alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma, and t(12;22) is clear cell sarcoma.

Question 4304

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 55-year-old male presents with bowel and bladder dysfunction and sacral pain. Imaging demonstrates a destructive midline sacral mass. Core needle biopsy reveals large, vacuolated cells with abundant bubbly cytoplasm arranged in cords and lobules within a myxoid stroma. Which of the following immunohistochemical markers is most highly sensitive and specific for confirming this diagnosis?

. Cytokeratin
. S-100
. Brachyury
. CD99
. Smooth muscle actin

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Brachyury


Explanation

The clinical picture and presence of 'physaliferous' (bubbly) cells is characteristic of a chordoma, a tumor arising from notochordal remnants most commonly found in the sacrococcygeal region or spheno-occipital (clivus) region. While chordomas often express cytokeratin and S-100, the nuclear transcription factor brachyury is considered the most highly sensitive and specific diagnostic marker for notochordal differentiation.

Question 4305

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 16-year-old boy presents with severe right thigh pain that awakens him from sleep. The pain is consistently and rapidly relieved by taking ibuprofen. A CT scan demonstrates a well-circumscribed 8 mm radiolucent nidus surrounded by dense sclerotic bone in the proximal femur. The intense, nocturnal pain experienced by this patient is directly mediated by dramatically elevated local production of which of the following?

. Interleukin-1 (IL-1)
. Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2)
. Tumor Necrosis Factor-alpha (TNF-a)
. Substance P
. Bradykinin

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2)


Explanation

The classic presentation of an osteoid osteoma includes nocturnal pain that is dramatically responsive to NSAIDs. This response occurs because the nidus of the osteoid osteoma produces high levels of Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2). Cyclooxygenase inhibitors (NSAIDs) block the production of PGE2, providing substantial pain relief.

Question 4306

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A slow-growing primary malignant bone tumor composed of abundant clear cytoplasm and chondroid matrix is diagnosed on core needle biopsy. Which of the following best describes the typical demographic and anatomical location for Clear Cell Chondrosarcoma?

. Diaphyseal lesion in a child (under 10 years)
. Metaphyseal lesion in an adolescent (10-20 years)
. Epiphyseal lesion in an older adult (30-50 years)
. Cortical lesion in a teenager
. Juxta-articular soft tissue mass in a young adult

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Epiphyseal lesion in an older adult (30-50 years)


Explanation

Clear cell chondrosarcoma is a rare, low-grade malignant cartilaginous tumor. It is distinctive because it classically involves the epiphysis (often of the proximal femur or humerus) and typically occurs in older adults (third to fifth decade). It is frequently confused with chondroblastoma radiographically, but chondroblastoma usually occurs in skeletally immature patients (teens).

Question 4307

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 55-year-old male presents with deep thigh pain. Radiographs show a permeative, destructive diaphyseal lesion in the femur with minimal periosteal reaction. MRI shows extensive marrow replacement. Biopsy yields a diagnosis of primary lymphoma of bone.

The majority of primary bone lymphomas will stain strongly positive for which of the following cluster of differentiation (CD) markers?

. CD99
. CD1a
. CD20
. Cytokeratin
. S-100

Correct Answer & Explanation

. CD20


Explanation

Primary lymphoma of bone is most commonly Diffuse Large B-cell Lymphoma (DLBCL). Therefore, the neoplastic cells will strongly express B-cell markers such as CD20, as well as the leukocyte common antigen CD45. CD99 is typically associated with Ewing Sarcoma (though it can occasionally be positive in lymphoblastic lymphomas, DLBCL is primarily CD20+). CD1a is a marker for Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis.

Question 4308

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 22-year-old male presents with a painful mass in his quadriceps muscle 4 weeks after suffering a blunt contusion during a football game. A biopsy is taken from the mass due to concerns for a soft tissue sarcoma. Which of the following histologic patterns is most characteristic of Myositis Ossificans and helps distinguish it from an extraskeletal osteosarcoma?

. Central maturation with peripheral immature woven bone
. Peripheral maturation with mature lamellar bone surrounding an immature cellular center
. Diffuse cellular atypia with irregular mitotic figures throughout
. Chondroid matrix forming a thick cap over mature trabecular bone
. Spindle cells forming a herring-bone pattern with minimal osteoid

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Peripheral maturation with mature lamellar bone surrounding an immature cellular center


Explanation

Myositis ossificans classically demonstrates a 'zonal phenomenon' of maturation. The periphery of the lesion consists of mature, well-organized lamellar bone, while the central portion is composed of highly cellular, immature fibroblasts and woven bone. This is the exact opposite of osteosarcoma, which typically shows less mature, anaplastic cells and malignant osteoid at its growing periphery.

Question 4309

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A patient with Maffucci syndrome is at an increased risk of multiple conditions compared to a patient with isolated Ollier disease. Which of the following clinical features and associated risks most accurately distinguish Maffucci syndrome from Ollier disease?
. Multiple enchondromas and café-au-lait spots
. Multiple enchondromas, soft tissue hemangiomas, and increased risk of gastrointestinal/ovarian malignancies
. Multiple osteochondromas and precocious puberty
. Fibrous dysplasia and intramuscular myxomas
. Enchondromatosis and bilateral acoustic neuromas

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Multiple enchondromas, soft tissue hemangiomas, and increased risk of gastrointestinal/ovarian malignancies


Explanation

Maffucci syndrome is characterized by the presence of multiple enchondromas associated with soft tissue hemangiomas (often presenting as bluish nodules with phleboliths on X-ray). Patients with Maffucci syndrome have a high risk of malignant transformation to chondrosarcoma (up to 100% in some series) and an increased risk of visceral malignancies, including astrocytomas, and GI or ovarian cancers. Ollier disease consists of multiple enchondromas without the hemangiomas.

Question 4310

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 35-year-old female presents with a painless mass on the posterior aspect of her distal thigh. Radiographs demonstrate a dense, lobulated, heavily ossified mass attached to the posterior cortex of the distal femur on a broad stalk, with no medullary involvement. A core biopsy confirms a low-grade malignant spindle cell stroma with well-formed woven bone trabeculae. Amplification of which of the following gene pairs is a pathognomonic molecular feature of this tumor?

. TP53 and RB1
. MDM2 and CDK4
. c-MYC and N-MYC
. EWSR1 and FLI1
. GNAS and EXT1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. MDM2 and CDK4


Explanation

This is a classic presentation of parosteal osteosarcoma, a low-grade surface osteosarcoma most commonly arising on the posterior distal femur. It is characterized molecularly by ring chromosomes and supernumerary ring chromosomes containing amplification of the 12q13-15 region, which houses the MDM2 and CDK4 genes.

Question 4311

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 65-year-old male with a known history of metastatic clear cell Renal Cell Carcinoma (RCC) presents with an impending pathologic fracture of his right proximal femur.

A prophylactic stabilization surgery is planned. Which of the following preoperative interventions is most critical to reduce perioperative mortality and morbidity?

. Preoperative radiation therapy
. Immediate prophylactic intramedullary nailing
. Preoperative angiographic embolization
. Initiation of bisphosphonates 4 weeks prior to surgery
. Neoadjuvant multi-agent chemotherapy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Preoperative angiographic embolization


Explanation

Metastatic renal cell carcinoma (as well as metastatic thyroid cancer) lesions to bone are notoriously hypervascular. Surgical intervention without prior intervention can lead to massive, life-threatening intraoperative hemorrhage. Preoperative selective angiographic embolization (typically 24-48 hours before surgery) is a critical step in managing these specific metastatic lesions to minimize surgical blood loss.

Question 4312

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

Aneurysmal bone cysts (ABCs) were historically considered entirely reactive lesions but are now recognized to have a primary neoplastic pathogenesis in many cases. Primary ABCs are most commonly driven by a recurrent chromosomal translocation resulting in the upregulation of which of the following genes?

. Translocation t(11;22) EWSR1-FLI1
. Rearrangement of the USP6 gene at 17p13
. Activating mutation of the GNAS gene
. Mutation in the EXT1 or EXT2 genes
. MDM2 amplification

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Rearrangement of the USP6 gene at 17p13


Explanation

Primary Aneurysmal Bone Cysts (ABCs) are neoplastic and characterized by a recurrent t(16;17) translocation that results in fusion of the promoter region of the CDH11 gene with the coding sequence of the USP6 gene. This leads to transcriptional upregulation of USP6, which drives the formation of the cyst. This genetic finding separates primary ABCs from secondary ABC-like changes found in other tumors (e.g., giant cell tumor, chondroblastoma).

Question 4313

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 14-year-old girl is evaluated for a progressive deformity of her proximal femur. Radiographs show a purely lytic lesion in the metadiaphysis with a classic 'ground-glass' matrix and a 'shepherd's crook' varus deformity.

Which of the following genetic alterations is responsible for the pathogenesis of this condition?

. EXT1 mutation
. USP6 rearrangement
. GNAS activating mutation
. TP53 deletion
. RB1 loss of heterozygosity

Correct Answer & Explanation

. GNAS activating mutation


Explanation

The clinical and radiographic description is classic for Fibrous Dysplasia (ground glass matrix, shepherd's crook deformity). Fibrous dysplasia is caused by a somatic activating missense mutation in the GNAS gene (specifically at the Arg201 codon), which encodes the alpha subunit of the Gs stimulatory protein. This leads to constitutive activation of adenylate cyclase and excessive intracellular cAMP, preventing proper maturation of osteoblasts.

Question 4314

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 21-year-old male presents with chronic, dull back pain. Radiographs and CT show a 3.5 cm expansile, radiolucent mass with central ossification involving the posterior elements of the L4 vertebra.

Which of the following features differentiates this diagnosis (Osteoblastoma) from an Osteoid Osteoma?

. Size <1.5 cm and nocturnal pain completely relieved by NSAIDs
. Epiphyseal location and "chicken wire" calcification
. Size >2.0 cm and progressive dull aching pain not completely relieved by NSAIDs
. Permeative diaphyseal destruction with an "onion skin" periosteal reaction
. Purely lytic metaphyseal lesion with a "fallen leaf" sign

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Size >2.0 cm and progressive dull aching pain not completely relieved by NSAIDs


Explanation

Osteoblastoma and osteoid osteoma are histologically very similar (forming woven bone trabeculae lined by prominent osteoblasts). However, osteoblastoma is distinguished clinically and radiographically: it is larger (defined as >2 cm, whereas osteoid osteoma is <1.5-2 cm), often found in the spine (posterior elements), and produces a dull, aching pain that is generally NOT completely relieved by NSAIDs, unlike the classic nocturnal NSAID-responsive pain of an osteoid osteoma.

Question 4315

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 28-year-old female presents with a deep-seated soft tissue mass in her foot. A biopsy is obtained and demonstrates nests of pale spindle cells separated by fibrous septae. The tumor stains positive for S-100 and HMB-45.

This lesion, historically known as 'melanoma of soft parts,' is characterized by which of the following cytogenetic abnormalities?

. t(11;22) EWSR1-FLI1
. t(X;18) SYT-SSX
. t(12;22) EWSR1-ATF1
. t(2;13) PAX3-FOXO1
. t(9;22) BCR-ABL

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(12;22) EWSR1-ATF1


Explanation

Clear Cell Sarcoma of soft tissue is often called 'melanoma of soft parts' due to its melanin production and positive staining for neural crest/melanocytic markers (S-100, HMB-45, Melan-A). Unlike true cutaneous melanoma, it is defined by a characteristic reciprocal translocation t(12;22)(q13;q12), which results in the EWSR1-ATF1 fusion transcript.

Question 4316

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 28-year-old female presents with a painless mass on the posterior aspect of her distal thigh. Radiographs demonstrate a dense, lobulated, ossified mass attached to the posterior cortex of the distal femur by a broad base, with a visible radiolucent 'string sign' separating part of the tumor from the cortex. Histologic examination reveals well-differentiated spindle cells with minimal atypia embedded in a fibrous stroma, interspersed with well-formed woven bone trabeculae.

Which of the following genetic amplifications is diagnostic for this condition?

. MDM2
. USP6
. H3F3A
. EXT1
. GNAS

Correct Answer & Explanation

. MDM2


Explanation

The clinical, radiographic, and histologic descriptions are classic for parosteal osteosarcoma. This is a low-grade surface osteosarcoma typically located on the posterior distal femur. The 'string sign' represents a radiolucent cleft between the tumor and the underlying cortex. Parosteal osteosarcoma is characterized by the amplification of MDM2 and CDK4 genes on chromosome 12q13-15. USP6 is associated with Aneurysmal Bone Cysts; H3F3A with Giant Cell Tumors of bone and Chondroblastoma; EXT1 with Osteochondromas; and GNAS with Fibrous Dysplasia.

Question 4317

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 14-year-old boy presents with multiple unilateral cartilaginous bone tumors and multiple soft tissue hemangiomas exhibiting phleboliths on radiographs. He is diagnosed with a rare non-hereditary congenital disorder. What is the most likely gene mutation associated with this syndrome?

. EXT1 or EXT2
. IDH1 or IDH2
. PTEN
. GNAS
. APC

Correct Answer & Explanation

. IDH1 or IDH2


Explanation

The patient has Maffucci syndrome, characterized by multiple enchondromas and soft tissue hemangiomas (distinguishing it from Ollier disease, which is multiple enchondromas alone). Both Ollier disease and Maffucci syndrome are associated with somatic mosaic mutations in the IDH1 or IDH2 genes. The risk of malignant transformation (most commonly to secondary chondrosarcoma) is nearly 100% over the patient's lifetime in Maffucci syndrome, and up to 30% in Ollier disease. EXT mutations cause Multiple Hereditary Exostoses (MHE).

Question 4318

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 45-year-old male presents with chronic hip pain. Radiographs reveal a secondary well-defined, slightly expansile lytic lesion in the epiphysis of the proximal femur. Biopsy reveals uniform cells with central nuclei and abundant vacuolated clear cytoplasm, distinctly clear cell borders, scattered multinucleated giant cells, and reactive bone formation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

. Chondroblastoma
. Clear cell chondrosarcoma
. Giant cell tumor of bone
. Metastatic renal cell carcinoma
. Osteoblastoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Clear cell chondrosarcoma


Explanation

Clear cell chondrosarcoma is a rare, low-grade variant of chondrosarcoma that characteristically occurs in the epiphysis of long bones, especially the proximal femur or humerus, in adults (typically 30-50 years old). Histologically, it features cells with abundant clear cytoplasm and distinct boundaries. While chondroblastoma also occurs in the epiphysis and contains giant cells, it typically affects skeletally immature patients (teens). Clear cell chondrosarcoma requires wide surgical resection.

Question 4319

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 35-year-old female undergoes targeted medical therapy for a recurrent, diffuse, destructive intra-articular mass in her knee that is no longer amenable to surgical resection. Histology previously confirmed Pigmented Villonodular Synovitis (PVNS), also known as Tenosynovial Giant Cell Tumor.

What is the primary molecular target of the FDA-approved systemic therapy (e.g., Pexidartinib) for this condition?

. RANKL
. CSF1R
. BRAF
. mTOR
. VEGF

Correct Answer & Explanation

. CSF1R


Explanation

Tenosynovial Giant Cell Tumor (PVNS) is driven by a chromosomal translocation t(1;2)(p13;q37) fusing COL6A3 to CSF1. This results in an overexpression of Colony-Stimulating Factor 1 (CSF1), which attracts macrophages expressing the CSF1 receptor (CSF1R) that make up the bulk of the tumor mass. Pexidartinib is a highly selective CSF1R inhibitor approved for adults with symptomatic TGCT associated with severe morbidity or functional limitation not amenable to improvement with surgery.

Question 4320

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 25-year-old male presents with anterior lower leg pain. Radiographs show a well-circumscribed, multiloculated, expansile osteolytic lesion in the anterior diaphysis of the tibia. A biopsy demonstrates a biphasic pattern consisting of epithelial cells forming nests and tubular structures, surrounded by bland fibrous spindle cells. The epithelial cells stain strongly positive for cytokeratin. What is the recommended surgical management for this pathology?

. Intralesional curettage with local adjuvants
. Wide surgical resection
. Primary radiation therapy
. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by wide resection
. Immediate above-knee amputation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Wide surgical resection


Explanation

The clinical and histologic findings describe Adamantinoma, a rare, low-grade malignant bone tumor that almost exclusively occurs in the anterior diaphysis of the tibia. The biphasic histology (epithelial and fibrous components) and cytokeratin positivity are pathognomonic. Because it is a low-grade malignancy that does not respond reliably to radiation or chemotherapy, the standard of care is wide surgical resection (often requiring segmental defect reconstruction). Intralesional curettage has an unacceptably high recurrence rate.