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Question 4281

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 22-year-old male complains of chronic, mild left knee pain. Imaging reveals an eccentric, well-defined, lytic lesion in the proximal tibial metaphysis with a scalloped, sclerotic margin. Histological examination of curettage material displays a lobular architecture featuring a hypocellular myxochondroid center containing stellate cells and a hypercellular periphery containing spindle cells and occasional multinucleated giant cells.

What is the most appropriate initial treatment for this lesion?

. Observation and serial radiographs
. Intralesional curettage with high-speed burring and bone grafting
. Wide en bloc resection with massive allograft reconstruction
. Primary radiation therapy
. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by wide resection

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Intralesional curettage with high-speed burring and bone grafting


Explanation

The clinical presentation and classic "zonal" histology (hypocellular center with stellate cells and hypercellular periphery) describe a Chondromyxoid Fibroma (CMF), a rare benign cartilaginous bone tumor. Because it is a benign but locally aggressive lesion (Campanacci stage 2 or 3), observation is inadequate. The standard of care is intralesional extended curettage (utilizing a high-speed burr or adjuvants like phenol/argon beam) followed by bone grafting or cementation. Wide en bloc resection is rarely indicated unless the lesion is massive, recurrent, or involves an expendable bone (e.g., proximal fibula).

Question 4282

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 7-year-old boy presents with a painful lytic lesion in the skull and a separate localized lytic lesion in the clavicle. A biopsy of the clavicular lesion reveals sheets of mononuclear cells with characteristic grooved "coffee bean" nuclei intermingled with numerous eosinophils. Immunohistochemistry shows the cells are positive for CD1a and Langerin (CD207).

Which of the following specific genetic mutations is most frequently identified in the pathogenesis of this disease?

. EXT1 nonsense mutation
. KRAS activating mutation
. BRAF V600E point mutation
. GNAS missense mutation
. IDH1 point mutation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. BRAF V600E point mutation


Explanation

The patient has Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis (LCH), supported by the typical lytic bone lesions, histology (eosinophils and cells with folded/grooved nuclei), and diagnostic immunomarkers (CD1a and Langerin). It is now established that LCH is a clonal neoplastic disorder of myeloid-derived dendritic cells. Approximately 50-60% of LCH cases harbor the BRAF V600E activating mutation, leading to constitutive activation of the MAPK/ERK signaling pathway. This has important therapeutic implications, as BRAF inhibitors (e.g., vemurafenib) can be used in severe, multi-system, or refractory cases.

Question 4283

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 38-year-old female presents with recurrent, massive knee swelling, stiffness, and pain. MRI demonstrates a large joint effusion and extensive nodular synovial proliferation that shows distinctly low signal intensity on both T1- and T2-weighted images due to hemosiderin deposition.

Recent advances in systemic targeted therapy for advanced, unresectable forms of this specific disease are designed to inhibit which of the following pathways?

. Vascular Endothelial Growth Factor Receptor (VEGFR)
. Epidermal Growth Factor Receptor (EGFR)
. Colony-stimulating factor 1 receptor (CSF1R)
. Platelet-derived growth factor receptor (PDGFR)
. Human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Colony-stimulating factor 1 receptor (CSF1R)


Explanation

The clinical presentation and MRI findings (hemosiderin causing blooming/low signal on T1/T2) are classic for Pigmented Villonodular Synovitis (PVNS), currently termed diffuse Tenosynovial Giant Cell Tumor (TGCT). The pathogenesis of TGCT involves a specific genetic translocation—most commonly t(1;2)(p13;q37)—that leads to the overexpression of Colony-Stimulating Factor 1 (CSF1) by a small clone of neoplastic synovial cells. This overexpressed CSF1 acts as a chemoattractant, massively recruiting CSF1R-expressing macrophages, which form the bulk of the tumor mass. Pexidartinib, a targeted CSF1R inhibitor, is FDA-approved for adults with symptomatic, advanced TGCT not amenable to improvement with surgery.

Question 4284

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 35-year-old male presents with chronic, dull pain in his left hip. Radiographs demonstrate a radiolucent lesion located within the proximal femoral epiphysis. A biopsy is performed, and histologic examination reveals lobules of cells with distinct cell membranes and abundant clear cytoplasm, interspersed with woven bone and areas of chondroid matrix. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Chondroblastoma
. Clear cell chondrosarcoma
. Giant cell tumor of bone
. Osteosarcoma
. Ewing sarcoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Clear cell chondrosarcoma


Explanation

The clinical presentation and histology are classic for clear cell chondrosarcoma. This is a rare, low-grade malignant cartilaginous tumor that characteristically arises in the epiphysis of long bones (most commonly the proximal femur or humerus) in adults (typically 3rd to 5th decades). Histologically, it is defined by cells with abundant clear cytoplasm (due to glycogen) and distinct cell membranes, admixed with woven bone and hyaline cartilage. While chondroblastoma also occurs in the epiphysis, it typically affects skeletally immature patients and shows 'chicken-wire' calcification with mononuclear cells and osteoclast-like giant cells, lacking the distinct clear cells seen in clear cell chondrosarcoma.

Question 4285

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 14-year-old girl presents with progressive pain and swelling over her proximal fibula. Radiographs demonstrate an expansile, multiloculated lytic lesion as seen in the representative radiograph.

A core needle biopsy confirms a primary aneurysmal bone cyst (ABC). Which of the following genetic alterations is most characteristic of primary aneurysmal bone cysts?

. t(11;22) EWS-FLI1
. t(X;18) SYT-SSX
. t(16;17) CDH11-USP6
. GNAS1 mutation
. EXT1 mutation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(16;17) CDH11-USP6


Explanation

Primary aneurysmal bone cysts (ABCs) are now recognized as true neoplasms driven by recurrent translocations, most commonly t(16;17)(q22;p13), which fuses the promoter region of the osteoblast cadherin 11 gene (CDH11) to the ubiquitin-specific protease 6 gene (USP6). This leads to USP6 upregulation. t(11;22) is seen in Ewing sarcoma. t(X;18) is seen in Synovial Sarcoma. GNAS1 mutations are associated with fibrous dysplasia. EXT1/EXT2 mutations are linked to multiple hereditary exostoses.

Question 4286

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 28-year-old female presents with a painless, slow-growing mass on the posterior aspect of her distal thigh. Radiographs reveal a densely mineralized, lobulated mass attached to the posterior cortex of the distal femur via a broad base. Biopsy reveals a low-grade spindle cell proliferation with well-formed woven bone trabeculae. Which of the following molecular alterations is most commonly associated with this tumor?

. MDM2 and CDK4 amplification
. TP53 mutation
. H3F3A mutation
. USP6 rearrangement
. FUS-CHOP fusion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. MDM2 and CDK4 amplification


Explanation

The patient's presentation is classic for a parosteal osteosarcoma, a low-grade surface osteosarcoma that typically arises on the posterior aspect of the distal femur. Cytogenetically, parosteal osteosarcomas are characterized by supernumerary ring chromosomes containing amplified sequences of 12q13-15, which include the MDM2 and CDK4 genes. MDM2 inhibits p53, and CDK4 promotes cell cycle progression. TP53 mutations are more common in conventional high-grade osteosarcoma. H3F3A mutations are seen in giant cell tumors of bone and chondroblastomas. FUS-CHOP (FUS-DDIT3) is seen in myxoid liposarcoma.

Question 4287

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 30-year-old male presents with anterior tibial bowing and a persistent dull ache in his leg. Radiographs display a multilocular, 'soap-bubble' appearing lytic lesion in the anterior diaphysis of the tibia. Biopsy demonstrates nests of uniform epithelial cells surrounded by a spindle cell fibrous stroma. Immunohistochemistry shows strong positivity for cytokeratin. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Osteofibrous dysplasia
. Adamantinoma
. Fibrous dysplasia
. Metastatic squamous cell carcinoma
. Chondromyxoid fibroma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Adamantinoma


Explanation

Adamantinoma is a rare, low-grade malignant bone tumor that almost exclusively occurs in the anterior diaphyseal cortex of the tibia. It has a biphasic histologic pattern consisting of epithelial cells and osteofibrous stroma. The epithelial nature of the cells is confirmed by positive immunostaining for cytokeratins (e.g., AE1/AE3). Osteofibrous dysplasia (OFD) occurs in the same location but typically in children under 10 years old; while OFD may have scattered cytokeratin-positive cells, it lacks the prominent epithelial nests seen in adamantinoma. Metastatic SCC would be extremely rare as a primary presentation in the tibial diaphysis of a 30-year-old and would show marked cytologic atypia.

Question 4288

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 60-year-old male presents with insidious onset of bowel and bladder dysfunction, accompanied by localized sacral pain. Imaging shows a large, destructive midline sacral mass.

Histologic examination demonstrates cords of large cells with abundant vacuolated cytoplasm within a myxoid stroma. Which of the following immunohistochemical markers is highly sensitive and specific for the diagnosis of this neoplasm?

. Brachyury
. S100
. CD99
. Cytokeratin
. SATB2

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Brachyury


Explanation

The clinical picture and presence of 'physaliferous' (bubbly/vacuolated) cells in a myxoid background are pathognomonic for chordoma, a primary bone tumor arising from notochordal remnants. Brachyury is a transcription factor required for notochordal development and is highly sensitive and specific for chordoma. While chordomas often co-express S100 and cytokeratins, these markers are not specific. CD99 is characteristic of Ewing sarcoma. SATB2 is a marker for osteoblastic differentiation (seen in osteosarcoma).

Question 4289

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 25-year-old male undergoes routine pelvic radiographs after a minor trauma. The films fortuitously reveal numerous 2 to 10 mm distinct sclerotic foci clustered near the joint spaces of the pelvis and proximal femurs. He is otherwise completely asymptomatic but mentions a history of connective tissue nevi (dermatofibrosis lenticularis disseminata). What gene mutation is established as the cause of this skeletal condition?

. LEMD3
. SQSTM1
. GNAS
. COL1A1
. EXT1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. LEMD3


Explanation

The presentation is classic for osteopoikilosis ('spotted bone disease'), an asymptomatic, benign autosomal dominant sclerosing bone dysplasia characterized by numerous discrete bone islands clustered at the ends of long bones and pelvis. When accompanied by connective tissue nevi, it is termed Buschke-Ollendorff syndrome. This condition is caused by loss-of-function mutations in the LEMD3 gene. SQSTM1 is associated with Paget's disease of bone. GNAS is associated with Fibrous Dysplasia. COL1A1 is associated with Osteogenesis Imperfecta.

Question 4290

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 45-year-old male presents with a deep, painless intramuscular mass in the anterior thigh. Biopsy reveals a proliferation of small, uniform round-to-oval cells, a prominent plexiform capillary network resembling 'chicken-wire', and small mucin-filled lipoblasts in a myxoid background. Which chromosomal translocation is characteristic of this tumor?

. t(12;16)(q13;p11)
. t(X;18)(p11;q11)
. t(2;13)(q35;q14)
. t(9;22)(q22;q12)
. t(11;22)(q24;q12)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(12;16)(q13;p11)


Explanation

The histology describes a myxoid liposarcoma, which is characterized by the t(12;16)(q13;p11) translocation resulting in the FUS-DDIT3 (formerly FUS-CHOP) fusion gene in over 90% of cases. t(X;18) is seen in synovial sarcoma. t(2;13) is characteristic of alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma. t(9;22) is seen in extraskeletal myxoid chondrosarcoma. t(11;22) is classic for Ewing sarcoma.

Question 4291

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 32-year-old female presents with a slow-growing, painful mass near her knee joint. MRI reveals a deep, well-circumscribed soft tissue mass adjacent to the joint capsule.

Histopathology shows a biphasic tumor comprised of both spindle cells and epithelial-like glandular structures. Which of the following is true regarding this tumor?

. It originates directly from the synovial lining of the joint
. It is characterized by the t(X;18) chromosomal translocation
. It primarily affects patients over the age of 60
. Complete resistance to radiotherapy is the standard clinical behavior
. The primary treatment is intra-articular steroid injection

Correct Answer & Explanation

. It is characterized by the t(X;18) chromosomal translocation


Explanation

The tumor is a synovial sarcoma. Despite its name, synovial sarcoma does NOT arise from synovium; it occurs near joints (most commonly the knee in young adults) but arises from multipotent mesenchymal cells. It is defined cytogenetically by the t(X;18)(p11;q11) translocation, which fuses the SS18 (formerly SYT) gene on chromosome 18 with one of the SSX genes on the X chromosome. It affects young adults (ages 15-40 primarily) and is typically treated with wide surgical excision, often combined with radiation therapy, to which it is generally responsive.

Question 4292

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 7-year-old boy presents with severe back pain. Radiographs reveal vertebra plana (flattening) of the T8 vertebral body. A CT-guided needle biopsy demonstrates a dense infiltrate of cells with folded, grooved nuclei intermixed with numerous eosinophils. If electron microscopy were performed on this biopsy specimen, it would most likely reveal which of the following pathognomonic structures?

. Weibel-Palade bodies
. Birbeck granules
. Russell bodies
. Howell-Jolly bodies
. Negri bodies

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Birbeck granules


Explanation

The clinical scenario of vertebra plana in a young child combined with histology showing cells with grooved (coffee-bean) nuclei and eosinophils is diagnostic of Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis (Eosinophilic Granuloma). The pathogenic Langerhans cells are characterized ultrastructurally by Birbeck granules, which have a distinctive 'tennis-racket' shape on electron microscopy. Weibel-Palade bodies are found in endothelial cells. Russell bodies are inclusions in plasma cells. Howell-Jolly bodies are nuclear remnants in RBCs. Negri bodies are seen in rabies infection.

Question 4293

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 65-year-old male presents with a large, destructive, expansile lytic lesion of the proximal humerus with an impending fracture. A needle biopsy confirms metastatic clear cell carcinoma consistent with a renal primary. He is scheduled for a wide excision and endoprosthetic reconstruction. To minimize intraoperative complications, what is the most appropriate next step in management prior to surgery?

. Neoadjuvant radiation therapy
. Preoperative arterial embolization
. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy with doxorubicin
. Denosumab therapy for 6 months
. Intralesional steroid injection

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Preoperative arterial embolization


Explanation

Renal cell carcinoma (RCC) and thyroid carcinoma metastases to bone are notoriously hypervascular. Surgical intervention without preoperative planning can lead to massive, life-threatening hemorrhage. Therefore, preoperative selective arterial embolization is strongly recommended (typically 24-48 hours before surgery) to reduce intraoperative blood loss. Radiation or systemic treatments do not provide the immediate hemostatic benefit required prior to impending fracture stabilization for RCC metastases.

Question 4294

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 15-year-old male presents with multiple asymmetric hard nodules on his hands and fingers, causing deformity. He also has several bluish, compressible soft tissue masses on his forearms. He has a known history of multiple enchondromas. Which of the following is the most accurate statement regarding his condition?

. It is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern
. He has a nearly 100% risk of developing malignant transformation over his lifetime
. The condition is caused by a germline mutation in EXT1
. The soft tissue masses are neurofibromas
. Prophylactic amputation of affected digits is the standard of care

Correct Answer & Explanation

. He has a nearly 100% risk of developing malignant transformation over his lifetime


Explanation

The patient has Maffucci syndrome, characterized by multiple enchondromas and soft tissue hemangiomas (bluish, compressible masses). Unlike Ollier disease (multiple enchondromas alone), Maffucci syndrome carries a drastically higher risk of malignant transformation. Nearly 100% of these patients will develop a malignancy in their lifetime, most commonly chondrosarcoma, but also highly frequent are astrocytomas, GI malignancies, and ovarian tumors. It is non-hereditary (sporadic mutations in IDH1/IDH2). EXT1 is associated with Multiple Hereditary Exostoses (osteochondromas).

Question 4295

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 45-year-old asymptomatic female undergoes a lumbar spine MRI for mild mechanical back pain. An incidental finding at the L3 vertebral body is noted.

The discrete lesion is hyperintense on both T1- and T2-weighted MRI sequences. A subsequent CT scan reveals a 'polka-dot' appearance in the axial plane and coarse vertical trabeculations in the sagittal plane. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Metastatic breast carcinoma
. Vertebral hemangioma
. Multiple myeloma
. Chordoma
. Eosinophilic granuloma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Vertebral hemangioma


Explanation

The findings are pathognomonic for a vertebral hemangioma. Hemangiomas contain fat and vascular channels, which results in high signal intensity on both T1 and T2 MRI sequences. The compensatory thickening of the remaining vertical trabeculae gives the classic 'corduroy' or 'jail-bar' appearance on sagittal CT/plain film, and the 'polka-dot' appearance on axial CT. They are usually asymptomatic, benign incidental findings requiring no treatment.

Question 4296

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 22-year-old male presents with chronic mid-back pain. He describes the pain as a dull, constant ache that is not reliably relieved by NSAIDs. A CT scan of the thoracic spine shows a 3.5 cm expansile, radiolucent lesion with scattered matrix calcifications originating in the posterior elements of T10. Histology demonstrates interconnected trabeculae of woven bone lined by prominent, plump osteoblasts within a highly vascularized connective tissue stroma. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Osteoid osteoma
. Osteoblastoma
. Aneurysmal bone cyst
. Chondroblastoma
. Giant cell tumor

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Osteoblastoma


Explanation

The clinical presentation and histology describe an osteoblastoma. Histologically, osteoblastoma is very similar (often identical) to osteoid osteoma, displaying woven bone trabeculae rimmed by active osteoblasts. However, osteoblastomas are distinguished clinically and radiographically by their larger size (>2 cm), progressive growth, and propensity to cause pain that is typically NOT relieved by NSAIDs or aspirin (unlike the nocturnal pain of osteoid osteoma that responds dramatically to NSAIDs). They most commonly occur in the posterior elements of the spine.

Question 4297

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 35-year-old male presents with recurrent, spontaneous hemarthrosis and a boggy, painless swelling of the right knee. MRI demonstrates a villous, nodular intra-articular synovial mass.

The mass exhibits a profound 'blooming artifact' on gradient-echo sequences. Which molecular alteration is the primary driver of this disease process?

. Overexpression of colony-stimulating factor 1 (CSF1)
. Amplification of MDM2
. Mutation in IDH1
. Translocation t(11;22)
. Mutation in GNAS

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Overexpression of colony-stimulating factor 1 (CSF1)


Explanation

The clinical and MRI findings (specifically the 'blooming artifact' on gradient-echo MRI due to hemosiderin deposition) are characteristic of Pigmented Villonodular Synovitis (PVNS), now more accurately termed Tenosynovial Giant Cell Tumor (TGCT). The pathogenesis of TGCT involves a specific genetic translocation, t(1;2)(p13;q37), which fuses the COL6A3 gene to the CSF1 gene, leading to the overexpression of colony-stimulating factor 1 (CSF1). This attracts a massive non-neoplastic infiltrate of macrophages and multinucleated giant cells that form the bulk of the tumor mass. Pexidartinib, a CSF1R inhibitor, is an FDA-approved targeted therapy for this condition.

Question 4298

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 5-year-old boy presents with progressive anterior bowing of the left tibia. Radiographs reveal a sharply marginated, radiolucent, intracortical lesion in the anterior diaphyseal cortex of the tibia with a sclerotic margin. Biopsy confirms woven bone trabeculae rimmed by prominent osteoblasts within a bland fibrous stroma. No epithelial nests are seen. What is the recommended initial management for this lesion, assuming no impending fracture?

. Wide excision and allograft reconstruction
. Intralesional curettage and bone grafting
. Observation and close clinical follow-up
. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy
. Immediate prophylactic intramedullary nailing

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Observation and close clinical follow-up


Explanation

The clinical presentation is classic for Osteofibrous Dysplasia (Campanacci disease), an uncommon benign bone lesion almost exclusively found in the anterior cortex of the tibia in children under 10 years old. Histology shows bone trabeculae with prominent osteoblastic rimming (unlike fibrous dysplasia). Because the lesion generally halts progression or regresses after skeletal maturity, and because early surgical intervention carries a high rate of recurrence (and risk of pseudoarthrosis), the initial management of choice is observation. Surgery is reserved for severe progressive deformity or non-healing fractures, typically delayed until skeletal maturity if possible.

Question 4299

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 19-year-old male presents with persistent right pelvic pain. Radiographs show a large, aggressive-appearing lytic lesion in the right ilium with cortical breakthrough. Biopsy demonstrates a hypocellular proliferation of bland, benign-appearing spindle cells (fibroblasts) separated by abundant dense collagen bundles. No cytologic atypia, pleomorphism, or mitotic figures are observed. This rare primary bone tumor is considered the osseous counterpart of which of the following soft tissue lesions?

. Nodular fasciitis
. Desmoid tumor (aggressive fibromatosis)
. Fibrosarcoma
. Myxofibrosarcoma
. Elastofibroma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Desmoid tumor (aggressive fibromatosis)


Explanation

The histology and clinical behavior describe a desmoplastic fibroma of bone. This is a rare, locally aggressive, benign primary bone tumor characterized by dense collagenous tissue and bland spindle cells. It does not metastasize but causes significant local destruction. It is considered the exact intraosseous equivalent of a soft tissue desmoid tumor (aggressive fibromatosis). Like desmoid tumors, it requires wide surgical margins to prevent high rates of local recurrence.

Question 4300

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 65-year-old male presents with severe back pain and generalized fatigue. Radiographs demonstrate multiple 'punched-out' lytic lesions in the skull and pelvis.

A bone marrow biopsy confirms 20% clonal plasma cells. According to the classic 'CRAB' criteria, which of the following findings is NOT an accepted criterion defining end-organ damage in symptomatic multiple myeloma?

. Hypercalcemia
. Renal insufficiency
. Anemia
. Osteolytic bone lesions
. Elevated alkaline phosphatase > 3x normal

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Elevated alkaline phosphatase > 3x normal


Explanation

The CRAB criteria defining symptomatic multiple myeloma include: Calcium elevation (Hypercalcemia), Renal insufficiency, Anemia, and Bone abnormalities (lytic lesions, severe osteopenia, or pathologic fractures). Elevated alkaline phosphatase is NOT part of the CRAB criteria. In fact, a hallmark of multiple myeloma bone disease is the profound uncoupling of bone turnover: profound osteoclast activation with severe suppression of osteoblast activity. Consequently, alkaline phosphatase (an osteoblast marker) is typically normal in myeloma patients, unless there is a healing fracture.