This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 10. Pathology and Oncology. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 4221
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
ofhat parameter is most commonly used to estimate the maximum tension a muscle can generating?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Length
Explanation
Question 4222
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
Demyelination diseases as multiple sclerosis and Guillain-Barre $ create neurologic symptoms by
Correct Answer & Explanation
. decreasing initiation of action potentials.
Explanation
Question 4223
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
Figure 51 shows the standing AP radiograph of a 56-year old woman who has multiple toe deformities and pain beneath the metatarsal heads. Shoe modification has failed to provide relief. In addition to correction of the proximal interphalangeal joint deformities, surgical treatment should consist of
Correct Answer & Explanation
. resection of the metatarsal heads of the first through fifth toes.
Explanation
Question 4224
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
An active, right-handed 71-year-old woman fell on her left shoulder and sustained the injury shown in the radiographs in 52a and 52b and the CT scan in 52c. Management should consist of
Correct Answer & Explanation
. hemiarthroplasty
Explanation
Question 4225
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
Figure 53 shows the MRI scan of a 53-year-old carnival worker who has pain and swelling in the left shoulder as a result of attempting to stop a roller coaster car with his arm. Examination reveals decreased ROM, apprehension, and inability to move the dorsum of his hand away from his back. Treatment should consist of
Correct Answer & Explanation
. open acromioplasty
Explanation
Question 4226
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 45-year-old man sustains the shoulder injury shown in the radiographs in Figure 55a and 55b and the CT scan in Figures 55c and 55d. Management should consist of
Correct Answer & Explanation
. a sling and swathe, with pendulum exercises in 10 days
Explanation
Question 4227
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
Figure 56 shows the radiograph of a 38-year-old patient with polyarticular rheumatoid arthritis who has severe pain in the shoulder. Non-surgical treatment has failed to provide relief. Treatment should now consist of 1/. Arthrodesis
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Repair of the rotator cuff
Explanation
Question 4228
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
Figure 57a and 57b show the radiographs of a 57-year-old man who has pain in the ulnar side of the wrist and hand. Examination shows tenderness at the base of the hypothenar area. Additional diagnostic testing should include
Correct Answer & Explanation
. AP and lateral radiographs of the elbow
Explanation
Question 4229
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
Acondroplasia and other chondrodysplasias are caused by mutations in
the
receptors of which of the following families of growth factors?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Insulin-like growth factor (IGF-1)
Explanation
Question 4230
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
The diagnostic distinction between a benign enchondroma and a low-
grade
intramedually chondrosarcoma is based primarily on the
Correct Answer & Explanation
. clinical history and radiographic findings.
Explanation
Question 4231
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 6-year-old boy has had increasing pain and a mass in the suprapatellar region of the right femur for the past week. Examination of the mass reveals it may be firm, immobile, and tender to palpitation. The patient has no systemic symptoms. Laboratory studies show a WBC of 7000 per cubic millimeter, a hematocrit of 40%, and an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 10 mm/hr. radiographs are normal. Figures 64a and 64b show saggital and axial T1-weighted MRI scans. Figure 64c shows frozen section pathology of the biopsy specimen. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Synovial sarcoma
Explanation
Question 4232
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 15-year-old male presents with persistent distal thigh pain. Radiographs reveal a poorly defined, mixed lytic and sclerotic lesion in the distal femoral metaphysis with a 'sunburst' periosteal reaction. Biopsy confirms high-grade intramedullary osteosarcoma. Which of the following genetic alterations is most frequently associated with the pathogenesis of this tumor?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Mutation of the RB1 and TP53 genes
Explanation
Osteosarcoma is highly associated with mutations in tumor suppressor genes, specifically RB1 (associated with familial retinoblastoma) and TP53 (associated with Li-Fraumeni syndrome). t(11;22) is Ewing sarcoma, EXT1 is osteochondroma, MDM2 is parosteal osteosarcoma, and t(X;18) is synovial sarcoma.
Question 4233
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
What is the most important independent prognostic factor for long-term survival in a patient with localized, high-grade intramedullary osteosarcoma?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Percentage of tumor necrosis following neoadjuvant chemotherapy
Explanation
The degree of tumor necrosis after neoadjuvant chemotherapy is the single most important prognostic indicator for localized osteosarcoma. A 'good response' is typically defined as greater than 90% tumor necrosis, which correlates highly with improved long-term disease-free survival.
Question 4234
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 28-year-old male presents with a slow-growing, painful mass near his knee. Biopsy demonstrates a biphasic tumor with both epithelial and spindle cell components. Which of the following chromosomal translocations is pathognomonic for this soft tissue sarcoma?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. t(X;18)(p11;q11)
Explanation
Synovial sarcoma is characterized by the pathognomonic t(X;18) translocation, resulting in the SYT-SSX fusion gene. t(11;22) is seen in Ewing sarcoma, t(12;16) in myxoid liposarcoma, and t(2;13) in alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma.
Question 4235
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 14-year-old boy presents with fever, weight loss, and a painful diaphyseal lesion of the femur. Radiographs reveal a permeative destructive lesion with an 'onion-skin' periosteal reaction. Histopathology shows small round blue cells. Which cell surface marker is characteristically highly expressed in this tumor?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. CD99
Explanation
The clinical and radiographic presentation strongly suggests Ewing sarcoma. Histologically, it is a small round blue cell tumor that characteristically exhibits strong, diffuse membranous staining for CD99 (MIC2). CD45 is a marker for lymphoma, and CD31/CD34 are markers for vascular tumors.
Question 4236
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 14-year-old boy presents with a permeative lytic lesion in the femoral diaphysis with a periosteal "onion skin" reaction. Biopsy reveals small blue round cells. Which of the following translocations is most characteristic of this tumor?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. t(11;22)
Explanation
Ewing sarcoma is typically characterized by the t(11;22) chromosomal translocation, resulting in the EWS-FLI1 fusion protein. This drives the pathogenesis of this aggressive small blue round cell tumor.
Question 4237
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 16-year-old boy is diagnosed with a high-grade intramedullary osteosarcoma of the distal femur. He undergoes neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by wide surgical resection. Pathological analysis of the resected specimen shows 95% tumor necrosis. What does this percentage primarily indicate?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. A favorable prognosis compared to patients with less necrosis
Explanation
The degree of tumor necrosis following neoadjuvant chemotherapy is the single most important prognostic factor in osteosarcoma. Necrosis of 90% or greater designates a "good responder" and is associated with significantly better long-term survival.
Question 4238
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 15-year-old male presents with a distal femur destructive lesion with a Codman triangle. Biopsy reveals malignant spindle cells producing osteoid. What is the most significant prognostic factor for overall survival in this condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Percentage of tumor necrosis following neoadjuvant chemotherapy
Explanation
In osteosarcoma, the most significant prognostic indicator for long-term survival is the histologic response to neoadjuvant chemotherapy, specifically greater than 90% tumor necrosis.
Question 4239
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 14-year-old boy presents with a high-grade intramedullary osteosarcoma of the distal femur. His family history is notable for a mother who died of early-onset breast cancer and a sister treated for adrenocortical carcinoma. Which of the following genetic mutations is most likely implicated in this patient's presentation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. p53 gene mutation
Explanation
The clinical picture and family history are classic for Li-Fraumeni syndrome, an autosomal dominant disorder caused by a germline mutation in the TP53 (p53) tumor suppressor gene. Patients are at very high risk for developing osteosarcoma, breast cancer, soft tissue sarcomas, adrenocortical carcinomas, and brain tumors.
Question 4240
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 9-year-old boy presents with progressive mid-thigh pain and systemic fevers. Radiographs reveal a permeative, diaphyseal lesion of the femur with a prominent 'onion skin' periosteal reaction. A core biopsy confirms a small round blue cell tumor. Which of the following chromosomal translocations is most characteristic of this malignancy?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. t(11;22)
Explanation
The clinical and radiographic presentation points to Ewing sarcoma. Ewing sarcoma is classically driven by the t(11;22)(q24;q12) chromosomal translocation, which results in the EWS-FLI1 fusion protein in about 85-90% of cases. t(X;18) is associated with synovial sarcoma, and t(2;13) is seen in alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma.
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