This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 10. Pathology and Oncology. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 4201
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A “p value” of 4% (p=0.04) indicates that the
Correct Answer & Explanation
. hypothesis is incorrect or invalid
Explanation
Question 4202
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
What is the predominant collagen type in osteoarthritic articular cartilage?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. I
Explanation
Question 4203
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
Which of the following conditions associated with rheumatoid arthritis of the cervical spine is shown in the flexion-extension views in figures 45a and 45b?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Cranial setting
Explanation
Question 4204
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A patient undergoes an acute repair of a laceration of the median nerve in the antecubital fossa. A lack of functional recovery 6 months later is most likely due to
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Retrograde collapse of the endoneurial tubes
Explanation
Question 4205
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
To prevent injury to the posterior interosseous nerve during the approach for reduction and fixation of a fracture of the radial head, anterior retraction should be performed with the forearm
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Maximally pronated and elbow extended
Explanation
Question 4206
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 25 year-old amateur baseball player sustained a dorsal fracture-dislocation of the proximal interphalangeal joint of his long finger. He underwent closed reduction 3 hours ago. Examination reveals mild laxity of the radial collateral fragment involving 30% of the volar articular surface of the middle phalanx. Management should now include
Correct Answer & Explanation
. open reduction and internal fixation
Explanation
Question 4207
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
An orthopaedic surgeon who is the developer of a knee arthroplasty system is discussing treatment options with a patient who has tricompartmental osteoarthritis. As a part of this discussion, the orthopaedic surgeon has an obligation to disclose
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The name of the manufacturer
Explanation
Question 4208
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
Which of the following nerves lying between the gluteus medius and minimus is at risk for injury in a lateral approach to the hip?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Femoral
Explanation
Question 4209
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
Figure 46 shows the lateral radiograph of a 5 year-old girl who has a fracture of the left tibia as a result of minimal trauma. Examination shows no skin lesions or birthmarks, and family history is unremarkable. Laboratory studies are normal. Management at this time should include 1/. open biopsy and plating
Correct Answer & Explanation
. open biopsy and a long leg cast
Explanation
Question 4210
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A patient sustains a closed dorsal dislocation of the proximal interphalangeal joint of the middle finger without an associated fracture. Closed treatment results in a cocentric stable reduction. The finger is not immobilized. Which of the following conditions may appear 1 year later?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Triggering
Explanation
Question 4211
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
What is the standard interval for placement of an anterolateral portal in ankle arthroscopy?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Peroneus brevis to peroneus longus
Explanation
Question 4212
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A clinical trial is being conducted on a new orthopaedic device that is different from existing devices that are moderately successful, but have frequent complications when used to treat fractures in the elderly. To comply with international standards for clinical trials, the investigator must include in the study design
Correct Answer & Explanation
. reassurance that Medicare will pay for the treatment.
Explanation
Question 4213
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
Figure 48 shows a current lateral radiograph of a 23-year-old man who sustained a closed femoral diaphyseal fracture 5 months ago. Treatment consisted of placement of a retrograde femoral nail for the femoral fracture. The patient now reports a sudden onset of pain in the midthigh and cannot bear weight on his leg. Management should consist of
Correct Answer & Explanation
. an onlay iliac crest bone graft.
Explanation
Question 4214
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
To maximally resist apex anterior angulation in the tibia, the pins of a unilateral external fixator should be oriented in which of the following planes?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Coronal
Explanation
Question 4215
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
Resurfacing the patella during a total knee replacement is strongly indicated when the diagnosis is
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Rheumatoid arthritis
Explanation
Question 4216
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 34-year- woman has pain at the base of the thumb that worsens é pinching activities. Nonsurgical treatment has failed to provide relief. Examination reveals that the basilar joint is hypermobile, tender and painful when stressed. A radiograph of the trapeziometacarpal joint shows normal contour with widening when compared with the opposite side. Management should consist of
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Trapeziometacarpal arthrodesis
Explanation
Question 4217
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
The change over time in strain of a material under a constant load is defined as
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Creep
Explanation
Question 4218
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
What is the usual mechanism of injury for the fracture shown in Figures 49a and 49b?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. bending
Explanation
Question 4219
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
Gamma ray irradiation for sterilization of ultra-high molecular weight polyethylene in an oxygen environment can have what effect on the material?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Increase stiffness
Explanation
Question 4220
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
- The radiograph shown in Figure 50a and the CT scan shown in Figure 50b reveal a lesion in the left femoral neck of a 12-year-old boy who has pain in the left hip. The most likely cause of the osteopenia of the left proximal femur is
Correct Answer & Explanation
. disuse osteopenia
Explanation
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