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Question 7381

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 70-year-old woman who has been taking alendronate for 10 years presents with atraumatic thigh pain. Radiographs reveal lateral cortical thickening and a transverse radiolucent line in the subtrochanteric region. What is the primary pathophysiologic mechanism of this fracture?

. Hyperparathyroidism leading to severe cortical thinning
. Impaired osteoblast differentiation from systemic toxicity
. Severely suppressed bone turnover causing accumulation of microdamage
. Severe vitamin D deficiency resulting in osteomalacia
. Increased RANKL expression leading to aggressive focal osteolysis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hyperparathyroidism leading to severe cortical thinning


Explanation

Long-term bisphosphonate use heavily suppresses osteoclast activity, leading to adynamic bone that cannot remodel or repair physiologic microdamage. This directly results in the characteristic transverse atypical femur fractures at the subtrochanteric or diaphyseal lateral cortex.

Question 7382

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 45-year-old man involved in a fall from a roof sustains a posterior hip dislocation. Post-reduction, he is noted to have a complete sciatic nerve palsy. Based on the typical pattern of sciatic nerve injury in posterior hip dislocations, which focal neurologic deficit is most likely to be permanent or severe?

. Weakness in knee extension
. Weakness in ankle plantarflexion
. Weakness in ankle dorsiflexion and eversion
. Isolated loss of sensation over the medial calf
. Inability to flex the hip joint

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Weakness in knee extension


Explanation

The peroneal division of the sciatic nerve is structurally tethered and located more laterally, making it disproportionately vulnerable to traction or direct injury during a posterior hip dislocation. Injury predominantly results in foot drop and weak ankle eversion.

Question 7383

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

When evaluating a severely traumatized limb for potential amputation versus limb salvage, the Mangled Extremity Severity Score (MESS) is often referenced. Which of the following is NOT a scoring component of the MESS?

. Skeletal and soft tissue injury grading
. Severity of limb ischemia
. Patient age
. Patient sex
. Presence of systemic hypotension or shock

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Skeletal and soft tissue injury grading


Explanation

The MESS score components consist of Skeletal/soft tissue injury severity, Limb ischemia, Systemic shock, and Patient age. Patient sex is not a factor utilized in the calculation of this score.

Question 7384

Topic: Biomechanics & Biomaterials

Following a multi-level lumbar spinal fusion, adjacent segment disease (ASD) is a recognized complication. Which of the following surgical factors has been shown to most significantly increase the risk of developing symptomatic ASD at the proximal adjacent level?

. Use of pedicle screw fixation rather than anterior plating
. Sagittal malalignment with hypolordosis
. Use of an interbody cage
. Use of iliac crest bone graft instead of local bone
. Stand-alone anterior fusion without posterior instrumentation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Use of pedicle screw fixation rather than anterior plating


Explanation

Postoperative sagittal malalignment, specifically hypolordosis (flatback), significantly alters the biomechanics of the unfused adjacent segments. This abnormal stress is a primary driver for the accelerated development of adjacent segment disease.

Question 7385

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

During a routine L4-L5 microdiscectomy, a 3 mm incidental durotomy occurs with minor cerebrospinal fluid egress. The tear is repaired primarily with a 4-0 nonabsorbable suture, and a Valsalva maneuver confirms a watertight seal. What is the most appropriate postoperative management regarding mobilization?

. Strict flat bedrest for 5-7 days
. Placement of a subarachnoid lumbar drain for 72 hours
. Immediate early mobilization as tolerated without bedrest restrictions
. Strict bedrest with reverse Trendelenburg positioning
. Empirical administration of intravenous antibiotics for 14 days

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Strict flat bedrest for 5-7 days


Explanation

Current evidence demonstrates that after achieving a watertight primary repair of an incidental durotomy, early mobilization is safe and does not increase the risk of CSF leak or pseudomeningocele. It also reduces the morbidity associated with prolonged bed rest.

Question 7386

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

A patient undergoing halo skeletal fixation complains of new-onset diplopia and lateral gaze palsy on the second day after application. Which cranial nerve is most likely affected by the traction?

. Oculomotor nerve (CN III)
. Trochlear nerve (CN IV)
. Trigeminal nerve (CN V)
. Abducens nerve (CN VI)
. Facial nerve (CN VII)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Oculomotor nerve (CN III)


Explanation

The abducens nerve (CN VI) is the most commonly injured cranial nerve during halo traction. It has a long intracranial course, making it uniquely susceptible to stretch, resulting in a lateral gaze palsy and diplopia.

Question 7387

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

A 67-year-old man with known cervical spondylosis presents to the ER after a minor hyperextension injury. He is unable to move his arms but retains functional, albeit weak, motor function in his legs. Perianal sensation is intact. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Anterior cord syndrome
. Brown-Sequard syndrome
. Central cord syndrome
. Posterior cord syndrome
. Conus medullaris syndrome

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior cord syndrome


Explanation

Central cord syndrome typically occurs after a hyperextension injury in older patients with pre-existing cervical spondylosis. It classically presents with motor impairment that is disproportionately greater in the upper extremities than the lower extremities.

Question 7388

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

A 45-year-old male undergoes an Anterior Lumbar Interbody Fusion (ALIF) at L5-S1 for severe degenerative disc disease. Postoperatively, he complains of cloudy urine and notes infertility issues. Iatrogenic injury to which of the following structures is most likely responsible for his symptoms?

. Superior hypogastric plexus
. Inferior hypogastric plexus
. Pudendal nerve
. Genitofemoral nerve
. Pelvic splanchnic nerves

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Superior hypogastric plexus


Explanation

Retrograde ejaculation is a known complication of L5-S1 ALIF due to injury to the superior hypogastric plexus, which carries essential sympathetic fibers. Utilizing blunt dissection and avoiding monopolar electrocautery anterior to the L5-S1 disc space significantly minimizes this risk.

Question 7389

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

During the placement of a halo vest, the anterior pins must be placed in a designated "safe zone" to avoid neurovascular injury. Which two nerves are primarily at risk if the anterior pins are placed too medially?

. Supraorbital and supratrochlear nerves
. Facial and trigeminal nerves
. Greater occipital and lesser occipital nerves
. Infraorbital and mental nerves
. Optic and olfactory nerves

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Supraorbital and supratrochlear nerves


Explanation

The safe zone for anterior halo pins is located approximately 1 cm above the lateral one-third of the eyebrow. Medial placement endangers the supraorbital and supratrochlear nerves, while lateral placement risks the temporalis muscle.

Question 7390

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 33-year-old male sustains a severe pelvic crush injury resulting in a Denis Zone 3 sacral fracture. Which of the following neurologic complications has the highest incidence in this specific injury zone?

. Bowel, bladder, and sexual dysfunction
. Isolated L4 radiculopathy
. Femoral nerve palsy
. Sciatic nerve palsy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Bowel, bladder, and sexual dysfunction


Explanation

Denis Zone 3 sacral fractures involve the central sacral canal. Because of direct trauma to the sacral nerve roots (S2-S4), these injuries carry the highest risk (up to 60%) of bowel, bladder, and sexual dysfunction.

Question 7391

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

A 65-year-old male sustains a hyperextension injury to his neck, resulting in upper extremity weakness out of proportion to his lower extremities, alongside patchy sensory loss. Which of the following factors predicts the poorest prognosis for his functional neurological recovery?

. Age greater than 50 years
. Initial presentation of spasticity
. Initial ASIA D classification
. A hyperextension mechanism of injury

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Age greater than 50 years


Explanation

The patient has acute traumatic central cord syndrome. Advanced age (especially >50 years) is one of the strongest negative prognostic indicators for meaningful functional motor recovery and independent ambulation.

Question 7392

Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation

A 30-year-old male strikes his head on the bottom of a pool while diving. He sustains a C5 flexion teardrop fracture. Examination shows bilateral complete loss of motor function, pain, and temperature sensation below the injury, but proprioception and vibratory sense remain intact. What is his diagnosis and expected prognosis for motor recovery?

. Central cord syndrome; good prognosis
. Central cord syndrome; poor prognosis
. Anterior cord syndrome; good prognosis
. Anterior cord syndrome; poor prognosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Central cord syndrome; good prognosis


Explanation

The patient exhibits Anterior Cord Syndrome, characterized by loss of the anterior spinothalamic and corticospinal tracts with preservation of the dorsal columns. This syndrome carries the worst prognosis among incomplete spinal cord injuries, with very low rates of motor recovery.

Question 7393

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

A 28-year-old skier sustains an acute inversion injury. He complains of a snapping sensation over the lateral malleolus. Physical exam reveals subluxation of the peroneal tendons over the fibula with resisted dorsiflexion and eversion. What is the primary anatomical lesion?

. Rupture of the anterior talofibular ligament
. Tear of the inferior extensor retinaculum
. Avulsion of the superior peroneal retinaculum
. Peroneus brevis split tear
. Calcaneofibular ligament tear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Rupture of the anterior talofibular ligament


Explanation

Peroneal tendon subluxation is primarily caused by an injury or avulsion of the superior peroneal retinaculum (SPR) from the posterior lip of the lateral malleolus.

Question 7394

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

A 45-year-old male sustains a high-energy closed pilon fracture. A spanning external fixator is placed on the day of injury. When planning definitive open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF), which of the following is the most reliable clinical indicator that the soft tissue envelope is ready for surgery?

. Normalization of erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
. Appearance of epithelialized fracture blisters
. Presence of a positive wrinkle test
. Exactly 14 days post-injury
. Resolution of deep venous thrombosis (DVT)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Normalization of erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)


Explanation

The wrinkle test indicates that tissue edema has subsided enough to allow safe surgical incision and wound closure. Operating before this sign appears significantly increases the risk of wound dehiscence and deep infection.

Question 7395

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

A 28-year-old skier reports a painful snapping sensation over the lateral malleolus after a forced dorsiflexion and eversion injury. Examination confirms subluxation of the peroneal tendons with resisted eversion. This condition is primarily caused by an injury to which structure?

. Inferior extensor retinaculum
. Superior peroneal retinaculum
. Calcaneofibular ligament
. Anterior talofibular ligament
. Plantar fascia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Inferior extensor retinaculum


Explanation

Acute peroneal tendon subluxation is almost universally caused by a tear or avulsion of the superior peroneal retinaculum (SPR) from its fibular attachment.

Question 7396

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
A 21-year-old football player sustains a severe hyperextension injury to his great toe. MRI confirms a complete rupture of the plantar plate with significant proximal retraction of the sesamoids. What is the primary indication for surgical repair in this specific turf toe injury?
. Grade I sprain of the metatarsophalangeal joint
. Grade II sprain with partial capsular tearing
. Complete tear with sesamoid retraction and gross instability
. Presence of an incidental bipartite sesamoid
. Isolated capsular stretch without instability

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Complete tear with sesamoid retraction and gross instability


Explanation

Surgical indications for turf toe injuries (plantar plate ruptures) include Grade III complete tears with gross joint instability, intra-articular loose bodies, or significant proximal retraction of the sesamoids.

Question 7397

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

A 72-year-old male presents with acute pain and swelling in his dominant hand. He has a history of a cat bite to the dorsum of his hand 24 hours prior. Examination reveals erythema, warmth, and exquisite tenderness, particularly over the MCP joint of the index finger. He has limited range of motion due to pain. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial management?

. Oral antibiotics and observation
. Application of warm compresses and elevation
. Emergency irrigation and debridement of the wound and joint, followed by intravenous antibiotics
. Corticosteroid injection into the MCP joint
. Close monitoring with serial radiographs

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Oral antibiotics and observation


Explanation

A cat bite to the hand carries a high risk of severe infection, particularly due to Pasteurella multocida and potential for joint penetration, leading to septic arthritis or osteomyelitis. The patient's acute presentation with erythema, warmth, exquisite tenderness over the MCP joint, and limited range of motion are highly indicative of septic arthritis or cellulitis progressing to deeper infection. Given the mechanism and signs of severe infection, emergency surgical irrigation and debridement of the wound and joint (if joint penetration is confirmed or suspected), followed by broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics, is the MOST appropriate immediate management. Oral antibiotics alone are insufficient for deep hand infections. Warm compresses and elevation are supportive but not definitive. Corticosteroid injections are contraindicated in infection. Close monitoring is inadequate for a rapidly progressing infection.

Question 7398

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

During arthroscopic repair of a Type II SLAP lesion, the surgeon places an anchor in the superior glenoid. If the drill and anchor are placed too far medially and posterosuperiorly, which of the following neurologic structures is at greatest risk of iatrogenic injury?

. Axillary nerve
. Musculocutaneous nerve
. Spinal accessory nerve
. Lateral pectoral nerve
. Suprascapular nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Axillary nerve


Explanation

The suprascapular nerve is at significant risk of injury during SLAP repairs if drill holes or anchors are placed too far medially (more than 1-2 cm from the glenoid rim) at the posterosuperior glenoid neck. The nerve courses through the suprascapular notch and then around the base of the spine of the scapula at the spinoglenoid notch, placing it in close proximity to the posterosuperior glenoid rim.

Question 7399

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 65-year-old woman sustains a 3-part proximal humerus fracture and is managed non-operatively. At her 6-week follow-up, she demonstrates profound weakness in shoulder abduction and reports decreased sensation over the lateral aspect of her shoulder. Injury to which of the following nerves is most likely responsible for her symptoms?

. Suprascapular nerve
. Axillary nerve
. Musculocutaneous nerve
. Radial nerve
. Spinal accessory nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Suprascapular nerve


Explanation

The axillary nerve courses close to the inferior capsule and surgical neck of the humerus, making it highly susceptible to injury during proximal humerus fractures or shoulder dislocations. Axillary nerve injury results in denervation of the deltoid and teres minor muscles, leading to profound weakness in shoulder abduction, as well as numbness over the lateral shoulder (regimental badge area) supplied by the superior lateral cutaneous nerve of the arm, a branch of the axillary nerve.

Question 7400

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

A 32-year-old bodybuilder feels a tearing sensation in his anterior chest wall while bench pressing a heavy weight. Examination reveals loss of the anterior axillary fold and significant ecchymosis. MRI confirms a rupture of the sternocostal head of the pectoralis major muscle. Which of the following describes the anatomic footprint of the sternocostal head at its humeral insertion relative to the clavicular head?

. Proximal and deep to the clavicular head
. Proximal and superficial to the clavicular head
. Distal and deep to the clavicular head
. Distal and superficial to the clavicular head
. Conjoined with the coracobrachialis tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Proximal and deep to the clavicular head


Explanation

The pectoralis major tendon undergoes a 180-degree twist before inserting on the lateral lip of the bicipital groove of the humerus. Due to this twist, the inferiorly originating fibers (sternocostal head) form the posterior lamina of the tendon and insert proximal and deep to the superiorly originating fibers (clavicular head), which insert more distally and superficially.