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Question 7361

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 28-year-old overhead athlete presents with posterior shoulder pain and deltoid weakness. MRI demonstrates atrophy of the teres minor. Entrapment of the involved nerve occurs in a space bounded laterally by which of the following structures?

. Surgical neck of the humerus
. Long head of the triceps
. Teres minor
. Teres major
. Coracobrachialis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Surgical neck of the humerus


Explanation

The axillary nerve is entrapped in the quadrilateral space. The borders of this space are the teres minor (superior), teres major (inferior), long head of the triceps (medial), and the surgical neck of the humerus (lateral).

Question 7362

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

A 35-year-old male is undergoing an arthroscopic medial meniscectomy. The surgeon carefully assesses the periphery of the posterior horn to avoid injury to vital structures. Which of the following structures lies immediately posteromedial to the posterior horn of the medial meniscus?

. Popliteal artery
. Popliteus tendon
. Semimembranosus tendon insertion
. Common peroneal nerve
. Biceps femoris tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Popliteal artery


Explanation

The semimembranosus tendon has several important insertions on the posteromedial corner of the knee, placing it immediately posteromedial to the posterior horn of the medial meniscus. The popliteal artery is located directly posterior to the posterior capsule, more centrally.

Question 7363

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

During an open Latarjet procedure, the surgeon identifies the musculocutaneous nerve to protect it during coracoid transfer. Approximately how far distal to the tip of the coracoid does the musculocutaneous nerve typically enter the coracobrachialis?

. 1 to 2 cm
. 5 to 8 cm
. 10 to 12 cm
. It does not enter the coracobrachialis
. At the level of the pectoralis major insertion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 1 to 2 cm


Explanation

The musculocutaneous nerve typically enters the coracobrachialis muscle approximately 5 to 8 cm distal to the tip of the coracoid process. Retraction in this area must be meticulously controlled to avoid neuropraxia.

Question 7364

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

A 32-year-old bodybuilder sustains a rupture of the pectoralis major tendon while bench-pressing. During surgical repair, the surgeon isolates the two heads of the muscle. Which of the following accurately describes the insertion of the sternal head relative to the clavicular head?

. It inserts deep and superior to the clavicular head.
. It inserts superficial and inferior to the clavicular head.
. It inserts deep and inferior to the clavicular head.
. It inserts superficial and superior to the clavicular head.
. Both heads insert at the exact same level in a single layer.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. It inserts deep and superior to the clavicular head.


Explanation

The pectoralis major tendon rotates 90 degrees before inserting on the lateral lip of the bicipital groove. This rotation causes the inferiorly arising sternal head to form the posterior lamina, inserting deep and superior to the clavicular head.

Question 7365

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

When placing S1 pedicle screws for spinopelvic fixation, bicortical purchase may be desired for increased pull-out strength. If the screw penetrates the anterior sacral cortex at the level of the S1 promontory too medially, which of the following structures is at greatest risk of injury?

. External iliac artery
. Middle sacral artery
. Internal iliac vein
. L5 nerve root
. Sympathetic trunk

Correct Answer & Explanation

. External iliac artery


Explanation

The middle sacral artery and vein run centrally along the anterior aspect of the sacrum. A bicortical S1 screw placed too medially risks injuring these vessels, whereas overly lateral placement jeopardizes the internal iliac vessels and the L5 nerve root.

Question 7366

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

A 45-year-old male sustains a posterior knee dislocation. The surgeon is highly concerned about an intimal tear of the popliteal artery. Which of the following anatomic characteristics places the popliteal artery at particularly high risk during knee dislocation?

. It runs superficially over the medial head of the gastrocnemius.
. It is tethered proximally by the adductor hiatus and distally by the soleus arch.
. It passes anterior to the popliteus muscle.
. It divides into the anterior and posterior tibial arteries proximal to the joint line.
. It lacks collateral circulation from the genicular arteries.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. It runs superficially over the medial head of the gastrocnemius.


Explanation

The popliteal artery is firmly tethered proximally at the adductor hiatus (Hunter's canal) and distally at the fibrous arch of the soleus. This rigid fixation makes it highly susceptible to traction and intimal injury during extreme excursions of the knee.

Question 7367

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 45-year-old male sustains a posterior wall acetabular fracture with a posterior hip dislocation. Reduction is performed in the emergency department. Post-reduction examination reveals a foot drop and inability to extend the great toe. Sensation is decreased over the dorsum of the foot. Which nerve and specific division are most likely injured?

. Sciatic nerve, tibial division
. Sciatic nerve, peroneal division
. Femoral nerve
. Superior gluteal nerve
. Obturator nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sciatic nerve, tibial division


Explanation

Posterior hip dislocations and posterior wall acetabular fractures are commonly associated with injury to the sciatic nerve, specifically the peroneal division. The peroneal division is more susceptible due to its lateral position and secure tethering at the sciatic notch and fibular head.

Question 7368

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 68-year-old woman on long-term bisphosphonate therapy presents with progressive thigh pain for several weeks. Radiographs reveal lateral cortical thickening and a transverse radiolucent line in the subtrochanteric region of the right femur. What is the recommended management?

. Discontinue bisphosphonates and observe
. Switch to teriparatide and prescribe crutches
. Prophylactic intramedullary nailing of the femur
. Open biopsy of the lesion to rule out malignancy
. Application of an external bone stimulator

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Discontinue bisphosphonates and observe


Explanation

The patient has an impending atypical femur fracture associated with bisphosphonate use. The presence of a cortical radiolucency combined with prodromal thigh pain is an absolute indication for prophylactic intramedullary nailing to prevent a complete, displaced fracture.

Question 7369

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 28-year-old male sustains a posterior hip dislocation. Closed reduction in the emergency department is unsuccessful. A CT scan reveals a small, incarcerated osteochondral fragment within the acetabular fossa. What is the most appropriate surgical approach for open reduction?

. Kocher-Langenbeck approach
. Smith-Petersen approach
. Ilioinguinal approach
. Stoppa approach
. Watson-Jones approach

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Kocher-Langenbeck approach


Explanation

The Kocher-Langenbeck (posterior) approach is the standard workhorse for addressing posterior hip dislocations, particularly those requiring open reduction due to incarcerated intra-articular fragments or associated posterior wall acetabular fractures.

Question 7370

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 45-year-old woman falls on an outstretched hand and sustains a capitellum fracture that extends medially to involve the majority of the trochlea (Dubberley Type 2). Which surgical approach provides the most optimal visualization for anatomic reduction of this complex articular injury?

. Kocher approach
. Kaplan approach
. Medial over-the-top approach
. Posterior approach with olecranon osteotomy
. Extensile lateral approach or anterior approach

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Kocher approach


Explanation

Fractures involving the capitellum and significant portions of the trochlea require extensive articular exposure. An extensile lateral approach (often elevating the common extensor origin) or an anterior approach allows direct visualization and fixation of the anterior articular shear fragment.

Question 7371

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 72-year-old woman with a 10-year history of alendronate use presents with vague thigh pain. Radiographs reveal focal lateral cortical thickening and a transverse radiolucent line in the subtrochanteric region of the right femur. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

. Immediate cessation of alendronate and observation
. Switch to teriparatide and partial weight-bearing
. Prophylactic intramedullary nailing of the femur
. Prophylactic compression plating
. Core decompression

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Immediate cessation of alendronate and observation


Explanation

The presence of a radiolucent line (incomplete fracture) in a bisphosphonate-induced atypical femur fracture with persistent pain is an indication for prophylactic intramedullary nailing. This prevents complete displacement and catastrophic failure.

Question 7372

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

During the ilioinguinal approach for an anterior column acetabular fracture, significant hemorrhage is encountered just superior to the superior pubic ramus. This bleeding is most likely originating from an anastomosis between which two vascular systems?

. Internal iliac artery and superior gluteal artery
. External iliac artery and obturator artery
. Internal pudendal artery and obturator artery
. Inferior epigastric artery and internal pudendal artery
. External iliac artery and femoral artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Internal iliac artery and superior gluteal artery


Explanation

The corona mortis is a potentially lethal vascular anastomosis between the external iliac (or inferior epigastric) system and the obturator (internal iliac) system. It is located over the superior pubic ramus and is at high risk during anterior acetabular approaches.

Question 7373

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

A 40-year-old polytrauma patient arrives at the trauma center with massive bleeding from a pelvic crush injury. According to the CRASH-2 trial, within what timeframe from the time of injury must Tranexamic Acid (TXA) be administered to provide a significant mortality benefit?

. Within 1 hour
. Within 3 hours
. Within 6 hours
. Within 12 hours
. Within 24 hours

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Within 1 hour


Explanation

The CRASH-2 trial demonstrated that the administration of TXA within 3 hours of injury significantly reduces mortality due to bleeding in trauma patients. Administration after 3 hours may actually increase the risk of mortality.

Question 7374

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

A 45-year-old farm worker sustains a traumatic complete amputation of his upper extremity at the mid-humerus level. What is the generally accepted maximum warm ischemia time for a major limb replantation containing significant muscle mass?

. 2 hours
. 6 hours
. 12 hours
. 18 hours
. 24 hours

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 2 hours


Explanation

Major limb amputations (proximal to the carpus) contain substantial muscle mass which is highly susceptible to irreversible ischemic necrosis. The maximum warm ischemia time for these injuries is generally 6 hours.

Question 7375

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 28-year-old passenger in an MVC sustains a severe dashboard injury resulting in a posterior hip dislocation. Upon reduction, physical examination reveals a dense foot drop, with an inability to actively dorsiflex or evert the ankle. Which specific neural structure is most commonly injured in this scenario?

. Tibial division of the sciatic nerve
. Peroneal (fibular) division of the sciatic nerve
. Femoral nerve
. Sural nerve
. Superior gluteal nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tibial division of the sciatic nerve


Explanation

The peroneal (fibular) division of the sciatic nerve is larger, located more laterally, and tethered more rigidly than the tibial division. This makes it highly susceptible to stretch injury during a posterior hip dislocation, resulting in a foot drop.

Question 7376

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

During an anterior ilioinguinal approach for the fixation of an anterior column acetabular fracture, severe hemorrhage occurs while dissecting near the superior pubic ramus. Which of the following vascular structures is most likely injured?

. Internal pudendal artery
. Superior gluteal artery
. Corona mortis
. Obturator nerve
. Inferior epigastric artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Internal pudendal artery


Explanation

The corona mortis is a potentially massive vascular anastomosis between the external iliac (or inferior epigastric) and obturator vessels. It is located on the posterior aspect of the superior pubic ramus and is highly vulnerable during anterior pelvic surgical approaches.

Question 7377

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

An 82-year-old female with a history of atrial fibrillation presents with a displaced left femoral neck fracture. She takes apixaban 5 mg twice daily, with her last dose 12 hours ago. Renal function is normal. What is the recommended timing for surgical intervention?

. Proceed immediately to surgery
. Wait 24-48 hours from the last dose of apixaban before surgery
. Administer Vitamin K and FFP, then proceed to surgery
. Delay surgery for 7 days to ensure complete washout
. Perform surgery under general anesthesia only, ignoring the apixaban

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Proceed immediately to surgery


Explanation

For patients on direct oral anticoagulants like apixaban with normal renal function, a delay of 24 to 48 hours is recommended to allow clearance and reduce bleeding risks. Reversal agents are typically reserved for life-threatening hemorrhage.

Question 7378

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

When evaluating a severely injured lower extremity using the Mangled Extremity Severity Score (MESS), which of the following variables contributes most heavily to a higher score predicting amputation?

. Patient age over 50 years
. Presence of shock in the field
. Limb ischemia time > 6 hours
. Energy of the injury mechanism
. Associated chest injury

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Patient age over 50 years


Explanation

In the MESS criteria, prolonged limb ischemia (especially greater than 6 hours) receives the highest point allocation. Severe ischemia strongly correlates with a higher likelihood of eventual amputation.

Question 7379

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 28-year-old female sustains a closed midshaft humerus fracture with an immediate, complete radial nerve palsy. She is managed nonoperatively in a functional brace. At 12 weeks, there is no clinical or electromyographic (EMG) evidence of radial nerve recovery. What is the next most appropriate step in management?

. Continue bracing for an additional 12 weeks
. Order an MRI of the brachial plexus
. Perform surgical exploration of the radial nerve
. Perform tendon transfers for wrist and finger extension
. Switch to open reduction internal fixation of the humerus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Continue bracing for an additional 12 weeks


Explanation

For a closed humerus fracture with initial radial nerve palsy treated nonoperatively, failure to show clinical or EMG recovery by 3 to 4 months is an absolute indication for surgical exploration of the nerve.

Question 7380

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 70-year-old woman taking alendronate for 8 years presents with severe right thigh pain after a minor trip. Radiographs show a transverse fracture in the subtrochanteric region with lateral cortical thickening and a medial spike. What is the most appropriate management?

. Discontinue alendronate, use a full-length intramedullary nail, and obtain contralateral femur radiographs
. Continue alendronate and perform open reduction internal fixation with a dynamic hip screw
. Discontinue alendronate and treat nonoperatively in a hip spica cast
. Switch to denosumab and perform bipolar hemiarthroplasty
. Discontinue alendronate and use a short cephalomedullary nail

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Discontinue alendronate, use a full-length intramedullary nail, and obtain contralateral femur radiographs


Explanation

This is a classic bisphosphonate-associated atypical femur fracture. Management requires stopping the drug, utilizing a full-length intramedullary nail to protect the entire bowed femur, and evaluating the contralateral side for impending lesions.