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Question 3601

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A patient has a humeral shaft fracture and is scheduled to undergo open reduction and internal fixation with a plate. What surgical approach will provide the greatest amount of exposure?
. Modified posterior approach with elevation of the medial and lateral heads of the triceps
. Posterior triceps-splitting approach
. Posterior triceps-splitting approach with radial nerve mobilization
. Posteromedial approach
. Lateral approach with radial nerve mobilization

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Modified posterior approach with elevation of the medial and lateral heads of the triceps


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The modified posterior approach with elevation of the medial and lateral heads of the triceps can provide exposure of 94% of the humeral shaft. The traditional posterior triceps-splitting approach exposes 55% of the humeral shaft. REFERENCES: DeFranco MJ, Lawton JN: Radial nerve injuries associated with humeral fractures. J Hand Surg Am 2006;31:655-663. Gerwin M, Hotchkiss RN, Weiland AJ: Alternative operative exposure of the posterior aspect of the humeral diaphysis with reference to the radial nerve. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1996;78:1690-1695.

Question 3602

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing
When treating osteoporosis with alendronate, what is the most common side effect?
. Diarrhea
. Epigastric distress
. Dry mucous membranes
. Drowsiness
. Insomnia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Epigastric distress


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Alendronate is a second-generation bisphosphonate, and it can cause epigastric distress in up to 30% of patients. This side effect can be minimized by gradually building up to therapeutic doses over a period of 4 to 8 weeks. REFERENCES: Marshall JK, Rainsford KD, James C, et al: A randomized controlled trial to assess alendronate-associated injury of the upper gastrointestinal tract. Aliment Pharmacol Ther 2000;14:1451-1457. Lane JM, Sandhu HS: Osteoporosis of the spine, in Garfin SR, Vaccaro AR (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Spine. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1997, pp 227-234.

Question 3603

Topic: Biomechanics & Biomaterials
What percentage of bone weight is collagen?
. 5% to 10%
. 20% to 25%
. 50% to 60%
. 70% to 75%
. 90% to 95%

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 20% to 25%


Explanation

Bone is a composite of both inorganic and organic material. The inorganic component of bone comprises 60% to 70% of the tissue, water accounts for 5% to 8%, and the organic matrix makes up the remainder. Collagen accounts for 90% of the organic component and thus 20% to 25% of bone weight. Collagen accounts for the flexibility of bone. The inorganic component of bone is made primarily of calcium and phosphorous, in the analogue of hydroxyapatite, and other ions including sodium, magnesium, and carbonate.

Question 3604

Topic: Biomechanics & Biomaterials
The load versus deformation curve of the functional spinal unit (FSU) is made up of the neutral zone, the elastic zone, and the plastic zone. What is the plastic zone of the curve believed to represent?
. Lining up of collagen fibers within the ligaments
. Stretching of elastin within the disk and ligaments
. Transition between flexion and extension
. Reversible elongation of the soft tissues
. Traumatic range of motion, resulting in damage to the soft tissues

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Traumatic range of motion, resulting in damage to the soft tissues


Explanation

Plastic deformation of viscoelastic tissues represents deformation of the soft tissues to the point of failure. The lining up of collagen fibers would be in the “toe region” of the curve, which, in the case of the FSU, would be mainly in the neutral zone. Elastin is a minor contributor to the composition of the ligaments and would be protected by the stiffer collagen fibers. The transition between flexion and extension occurs in the neutral zone, and reversible elongation occurs in the elastic zone.

Question 3605

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
Which of the following statements regarding bone mineral density (BMD) is true?
. Johnell et al. published a study on the predictive value of BMD for hip and other fractures. They found that lower BMD was associated with a higher risk of osteoporotic fracture. They concluded that BMD is a risk factor for fracture of substantial importance and is similar in both sexes.
. Lee et al. published a study on T-score discordance of BMD in patients with atypical femoral fractures (AFF). They found that the prevalence of T-score discordance between the hip and lumbar spine was relatively high in patients with AFF, and the presumed age at the initiation of bisphosphonate therapy was younger in patients with discordant T-scores.
. Incorrect Answers

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Johnell et al. published a study on the predictive value of BMD for hip and other fractures. They found that lower BMD was associated with a higher risk of osteoporotic fracture. They concluded that BMD is a risk factor for fracture of substantial importance and is similar in both sexes.


Explanation

Johnell et al. demonstrated that lower BMD is a significant risk factor for osteoporotic fractures in both men and women. The other options provided in the source text are either incorrect or represent distractors.

Question 3606

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
Etanercept is a recombinant genetically engineered fusion protein used to treat rheumatoid arthritis. What is its mode of action?
. Monoclonal antibody that binds TNF-α
. Blocks the binding of IL-1 to receptors
. Soluble receptor that binds TNF-α
. Soluble factor that binds rheumatoid factor
. Directly inhibits pyrimidine synthesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Soluble receptor that binds TNF-α


Explanation

Etanercept is a molecule consisting of the Fc portion of IgG fused to the extracellular domain of the p76 human TNF-α receptor. It is soluble and binds TNF-α. Infliximab is the monoclonal antibody that binds TNF-α. IL-1 receptor antagonists are still in development. Leflunomide is a drug that inhibits pyrimidine synthesis and is similar to methotrexate as an antimetabolite.

Question 3607

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
A 60-year-old man with a body mass index of 31 had a 6-month gradual onset of right medial knee pain. Examination revealed a small effusion, stable ligaments, a normally tracking patella, and mild medial joint line tenderness. Standing radiographs show mild medial joint space narrowing. Effective treatment at this stage of early medial compartmental osteoarthritis includes
. glucosamine 1,500 mg/day and chondroitin sulfate 800 mg/day.
. weight loss through dietary management and low-impact aerobic exercises.
. arthroscopic debridement and lavage.
. a valgus-directing brace.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. weight loss through dietary management and low-impact aerobic exercises.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: According to the 2008 AAOS Clinical Practice Guideline, Treatment of Osteoarthritis of the Knee (Nonarthroplasty), level 1 evidence confirms that weight loss and exercise benefit patients with knee osteoarthritis. The other responses have either inclusive evidence (a valgus-directing brace) or no evidence to support their use (glucosamine 1,500 mg/day and chondroitin sulfate 800 mg/day as well as arthroscopic debridement and lavage).

Question 3608

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE
An 11-year-old boy has had a fever and pain and swelling over the lateral aspect of his right ankle for the past 3 days. Examination reveals warmth, swelling, and tenderness over the lateral malleolus, and he has a temperature of 103.2°F (39.5°C). Laboratory studies show a WBC count of 13,200/mm³ with 61% neutrophils, an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 112 mm/h, and a C-reactive protein of 15.7. Radiographs and a T2-weighted MRI scan are shown in Figures 13a through 13c. Aspiration yields 1 mL of purulent fluid. Management should now consist of
. oral antibiotics and a follow-up office appointment the next day.
. incision and drainage of the distal fibular metaphysis.
. indium-labeled WBC scan.
. antituberculous medication for 6 months.
. three-phase technetium Tc 99m bone scan.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. incision and drainage of the distal fibular metaphysis.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The initial signs and symptoms of acute hematogenous osteomyelitis vary widely but usually include fever, bone pain, and impaired use of the involved extremity. In lower extremity infections, the child may limp or refuse to walk. Examination often reveals bone tenderness. In more advanced cases, erythema, warmth, and swelling may be present. The WBC and neutrophil counts are not always elevated, but the erythrocyte sedimentation rate will be abnormal in more than 90% of patients. When the infection is diagnosed early, before a subperiosteal abscess has formed, antibiotics alone may be adequate to treat the infection. This patient has a more advanced infection, however, with the MRI scan revealing a subperiosteal abscess that was confirmed by aspiration. When an abscess is present, surgical drainage is generally indicated to remove devitalized tissue and to enhance the efficacy of the antibiotics. Further studies, such as bone or indium scans, are not necessary and will delay definitive treatment.

Question 3609

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

An investigation studying whether physical therapy or subacromial injection can be successfully used to treat shoulder pain is conducted. Two groups are identified. One group is prescribed physical therapy, while the other receives a subacromial injection. The groups have similar baseline demographics and shoulder pathologies. Ten patients are randomized in each group and findings show that there is no significant difference in any patient-reported outcome measure. An increase in sample size would reduce the risk of what parameter?

. Type I error
. Type II error
. Selection bias
. Recall biasThis study represents a randomized clinical trial with two groups. However, the sample size is small, increasing the risk for type II error, or false-negative findings. Increasing the number of patients in each group would lead to increased power, thereby reducing the risk of a type II error. A type I error is the rejection of a true null hypothesis (false-positive). A randomized trial reduces the risk of selection bias as patients are assigned to groups in a random fashion. Recall bias occurs when participants do not accurately remember previous events or experiences from the past.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Type II error


Explanation

A football player injures his knee when he is tackled and falls awkwardly. He does not note any discreet “pop,” but pain prevents him from returning to the game. An effusion is noted the following day and an MRI scan is ordered. Selected images are shown in Figures 1 through 3. Based on these images, physical examination findings likely include

Question 3610

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE
Which of the following prophylactic regimens for the prevention of deep venous thrombosis after knee arthroplasty has received a grade 1A recommendation in favor of its use from the American College of Chest Physicians (ACCP) in the 2004 guidelines?
. Warfarin with a targeted international normalized ratio (INR) of 2.0 to 3.0 for 10 to 14 days
. Low-molecular-weight heparin used for at least 3 days
. Pneumatic compression sleeves used while the patient is in the hospital
. Fondaparinux used for 5 to 7 days
. Aspirin for 4 weeks

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Warfarin with a targeted international normalized ratio (INR) of 2.0 to 3.0 for 10 to 14 days


Explanation

DISCUSSION: In the 2004 ACCP guidelines, there were three prophylactic regimens that received a grade 1A favorable recommendation. These included low-molecular-weight heparin, warfarin, or fondaparinux, as long as they are used for at least 10 days. If warfarin is used, the target INR should be 2.0 to 3.0, according to the guidelines. Pneumatic compression sleeves have gained popularity in the orthopaedic community but have not received a grade 1A rating from the ACCP at this time. Use of aspirin by itself is discouraged by the ACCP. REFERENCE: Geerts WH, Pineo GF, Heit JA, et al: Prevention of venous thromboembolism: The seventh ACCP Conference on antithrombotic and thrombolytic therapy. Chest 2004;126:338S-400S.

Question 3611

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

Figure 9 is the clinical photograph of a 68-year-old woman 10 days after undergoing primary total knee replacement. She is experiencing hemarthrosis, discoloration, and bruising of the soft tissue about the knee; her history includes persistent serous drainage. This clinical appearance likely is associated with

. failure to use a tourniquet.
. failure to use a drain.
. use of low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH).
. use of regional anesthesia.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. use of low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH).


Explanation

DISCUSSIONCertain anticoagulants are associated with an increased risk for wound complications. Two studies showed an increase in postsurgical bleeding and wound drainage following use of LMWH. Other investigators have associated use of anticoagulants such as LMWH with an increased incidence of persistent wound drainage and subsequent infection. Current evidence does not support a significant difference in complication rates with and without the use of wound drains or a tourniquet. Regional anesthesia has been associated with less blood loss than general anesthesia and is not associated with a difference in wound complication incidence.

Question 3612

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing
A 3-year-old child is referred for evaluation of bowed legs. History reveals no dietary deficiencies; however, family history is significant for several members with bowed legs. Examination reveals genu varum, and the child is in the 5th percentile for height and weight. Laboratory studies show normal renal function, a normal calcium level, a decreased phosphate level, and an elevated alkaline phosphatase level. A plain radiograph of the lower extremities is shown in Figure 22. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Blount’s disease
. Chondrometaphyseal dysplasia
. Renal osteodystrophy
. Vitamin D-deficient rickets
. Vitamin D-resistant rickets

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Vitamin D-resistant rickets


Explanation

The differential diagnosis of genu varum includes physiologic genu varum, Blount's disease, skeletal dysplasia, and metabolic bone disease. Children with Blount's disease are generally in the 95th percentile for height and weight, and usually multiple family members are not affected. The radiographs show widening of the physis and metaphyseal flaring. In Blount's disease, the characteristic radiographic changes involve only the tibia, and at this age, most commonly show beaking of the medial metaphysis. Skeletal dysplasias, such as chondrometaphyseal dysplasia, are associated with short stature, and the radiographic changes are similar to those seen here. However, laboratory studies in these children will be within normal limits. Children with chronic renal disease will often be of short stature, and the radiographic findings are again similar to those shown here. However, BUN and creatinine levels are elevated and phosphate levels are elevated rather than decreased in children with renal disease. The absence of dietary deficiencies and positive family history rules out vitamin D-deficient rickets. There are four types of vitamin D-resistant rickets: failure of production of 1,25-dihydroxy vitamin D, phosphate diabetes (hypophosphatemic rickets), end organ insensitivity to vitamin D, and renal tubular acidosis. All types of vitamin D-resistant rickets are resistant to treatment with physiologic doses of vitamin D. The patient’s clinical picture, family history, laboratory studies, and radiographs are most consistent with hypophosphatemic rickets. This entity is inherited as a sex-linked dominant trait.

Question 3613

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

During an ilioinguinal approach for fixation of the anterior pelvic ring, brisk bleeding is encountered as the dissection is extended along the superior pubic ramus approximately 5 cm from the midline. What structure has most likely been injured?

. A branch of the femoral artery
. An anastomosis between the external iliac artery and obturator artery
. An anastomosis between the external iliac and femoral artery
. Internal iliac artery
. External iliac artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A branch of the femoral artery


Explanation

The corona mortis, or "crown of death," is a common anatomic variant that consists of an anastomosis between the obturator and the external iliac or inferior epigastric arteries or veins. Its reported incidence is over 80%. It is located behind the superior pubic ramus at a variable distance from the symphysis pubis (3 cm to 9 cm). It is at risk during surgical approaches to the anterior pelvic ring. If accidentally cut, the vessel can retract making control of hemorrhage difficult.

Question 3614

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE
A 2-year-old boy has been referred for musculoskeletal evaluation. Examination reveals shortened proximal limbs, hip and knee flexion contractures, an abducted thumb, and ear abnormalities. His parents are concerned about his deformed feet. What is the most common foot deformity associated with this patient’s diagnosis?
. Pes calcaneovalgus
. Fixed pes planovalgus
. Rigid equinovarus
. Metatarsus adductus
. Skewfoot (forefoot adduction and heel valgus)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Rigid equinovarus


Explanation

The patient has diastrophic dysplasia. Affected individuals have rhizomelic short stature, cauliflower ears, severe joint contractures (especially knees and hips), hitchhiker’s thumb, and a cleft palate. The most common foot abnormality is a rigid equinovarus deformity. Surgical results are poorer than those for idiopathic clubfeet and often require bony procedures or talectomy.

Question 3615

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

Within the intervertebral disk, aggrecan is primarily responsible for: Review Topic

. Tensile strength of the nucleus pulposis
. Tensile strength of the annulus fibrosis
. Sensory transmission
. Maintaining water content
. Intermolecular cross-linking of collagen

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tensile strength of the nucleus pulposis


Explanation

Aggrecan's primary function in the intervertebral disc is to maintain water content.Aggrecan, the most abundant proteoglycan within the intervertebral disk, is a hydrophillic molecule which helps attract and maintain water within the disc. This is important to maintain compressive strength. Early in life aggrecan has a high percentage of chondroitin sulfate chains. With aging this gradually changes to higher percentage of keratin sulfate. Other proteoglycans include decorin and versican. Decorin is believed to regulate cell cycles and influence fibrillogensis. Versican is a large extra-cellular matrix proteoglycan involved in cell adhesion and migration.Roughley et al. provide a review of biologic changes within the intervertebral disc during development, maturation, and degeneration. They note that aggrecan works to maintain water content within the disc, thus improving its compressive strength. Aggrecan content decreases with age leading to a loss of compressive strength.Illustration A shows the structure of aggrecan.Incorrect answers:

Question 3616

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing
Figure 17 shows the radiograph of a 2-year-old girl who sustained a fracture of the femur in a fall while walking with her parents. History reveals that this is her third long bone fracture, having sustained a humerus fracture 1 year ago and a fracture of the opposite femur 9 months ago. There is no family history of any similar problem. Examination reveals distinctly blue sclerae, normal appearing teeth, and no skin lesions. What is the most likely cause of this patient’s disorder?
. A quantitative defect of type I collagen synthesis
. A deficiency of vitamin D
. Parental abuse
. Abnormal osteoclast function
. Excess excretion of keratin sulfate in the urine

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A quantitative defect of type I collagen synthesis


Explanation

Osteogenesis imperfecta (OI) is a genetically determined disorder of type I collagen synthesis that is characterized by bone fragility. This patient has had three fractures of the long bones by age 2 years, with the last one occurring after relatively minor trauma. The patient’s history and clinical features are consistent with a diagnosis of Sillence type IA OI. Cells from individuals with type I OI largely demonstrate a quantitative defect of type I collagen; they synthesize and secrete about half the normal amount of type I procollagen.

Question 3617

Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation

What type of exercise is used early in the rehabilitation process to safely stimulate co-contraction of the scapular and rotator cuff muscles? Review Topic

. Resistive active motion
. Facilitated active motion
. Plyometrics
. Open kinetic chain
. Closed kinetic chain

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Resistive active motion


Explanation

Closed kinetic chain exercises are used early in the rehabilitation process. The distal segment is fixed, and an axial load is applied which provides glenohumeral compression and reduces the demand on the rotator cuff. These exercises stimulate co-contractions of the scapular and rotator cuff muscles, load scapular stabilizers, and facilitate active motion. Facilitated active motion exercises use proximal segment motion to stimulate and facilitate motion in the target tissue. These exercises are often performed in diagonal movements. Resistive active motion exercises are used later in the rehabilitation process. These are typically open kinetic chain exercises that involve active glenohumeral motion with extrinsic loads such as weights or exercise tubing. During the later stages of upper extremity rehabilitation, plyometrics are added. These exercises help to prepare the athlete for return to sport. When performed at slower speeds, these exercises emphasize stabilization and control. As the speeds increase, muscles begin to work in the stretch-shortening sequence associated with sports participation.

Question 3618

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE
What is the most important genetic element that distinguishes community-acquired methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (CA-MRSA) from hospital-acquired MRSA?
. Beta-lactamase
. Penicillin-binding protein 2a
. Panton-Valentine leukocidin (PVL)
. Staphylococcus cassette chromosome (SCCmec) type I

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Panton-Valentine leukocidin (PVL)


Explanation

PVL is a cytotoxin that defines CA-MRSA and is not typical of hospital-acquired MRSA. PVL has the ability to lyse white blood cells and cause tissue necrosis, allowing for rapid progression of abscess formation. Beta-lactamase is an enzyme that breaks the beta-lactam bond of penicillin and is present in most strains of Staphylococcus aureus today. Synthetic penicillins such as methicillin are resistant to the effects of beta-lactamase. MRSA and CA-MRSA carry the mecA gene, which encodes a penicillin-binding protein with a very low affinity for beta-lactam antibiotics, resulting in methicillin resistance. SCCmec mobile genetic units carry the mecA gene with additional genetic elements that together yield the multidrug-resistant strains found in healthcare environments. SCCmec type IV is specific to CA-MRSA and lacks these additional genetic elements, resulting in less multidrug resistance.

Question 3619

Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation

Delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS) is initially evident at the muscle tendon junction and can spread throughout the entire muscle. It is primarily associated with what type of exercise? Review Topic

. Concentric
. Isometric
. Eccentric
. Plyometric

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Concentric


Explanation

DOMS is primarily associated with eccentric exercise because fiber lengthening occurs during muscle contraction. Muscle injury occurs very early during eccentric exercise, with structural disruption of the cytoskeleton. A significant increase in creatine kinase levels occurs 24 to 48 hours after exercise and may peak between 3 to 6 days after exercise. All other choices are not strongly associated with delayed muscle soreness.

Question 3620

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

During establishment of an anterior portal for hip arthroscopy, what structure is at greatest risk for injury? Review Topic

. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve
. Femoral nerve
. Femoral artery
. Superior gluteal nerve
. Sciatic nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve


Explanation

The anterior portal for hip arthroscopy is approximately 6 cm distal to the anterior superior iliac spine, penetrating the muscle belly of the sartorius and the rectus femoris before entering through the anterior capsule. The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve is divided into three or more branches at the level of this portal and may be injured during portal placement. The femoral nerve and artery are more medial and at less risk. The superior gluteal and sciatic nerves are posterior and not at risk with an anterior portal.