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Question 3581

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
In performing an opening wedge high tibial osteotomy at the tibial tubercle, the osteotome extends 5 mm posteriorly and centrally out of the bone as shown in Figures 17a and 17b. What is the first structure it enters?
. Popliteal artery
. Popliteal vein
. Tibial nerve
. Popliteus muscle
. Soleus muscle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Popliteus muscle


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The major risk of performing a high tibial osteotomy is neurovascular injury. The new version of the high tibial osteotomy makes a transverse osteotomy at the level of the tibial tubercle. The osteotome is protected by the oblique belly of the popliteus muscle. The popliteal artery and vein and tibial nerve all lie posterior to the muscle. The soleus muscle originates below this level.

Question 3582

Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation

Which of the following activities produces greater hip joint contact pressures than full weight bearing during normal gait?

. Performing isometric hip exercises
. Getting on a bed pan
. Ambulating with a cane
. Rising from a chair using the affected leg
. Toe-touch weight bearing with passive hip abduction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Performing isometric hip exercises


Explanation

Rising from a seated position on a chair on the affected leg has been shown to create the highest contact pressure within the hip, even higher than full weight-bearing during walking.Limiting activities that create high contact pressures is important in situations such as after internal fixation of an acetabular fracture. Full weight bearing during a normal gait cycle is often considered too much contact pressure and considered a risk for early failure of fixation. During the postoperative period weight bearing and activities are limited to prevent this. It has been shown that the highest contact pressures, even higher than normal walking, are seen when rising from a chair on the affected leg.Brand et al. analyzed joint reactive forces in patients walking with and without a cane. Compared to age matched controls they estimate that using a cane decreases the contact pressure in the hip to about 60% of normal.Hodge et al. looked at data from an implanted hip prosthesis with pressure sensors. They found that some activities common to the early rehabilitative period, such as using a bed pan and performing isometric exercises about the hip, can create pressure approaching those of normal walking. The highest pressures recorded were when rising from a chair.Incorrect answers:

Question 3583

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

A 49-year-old man is seeking a second opinion for continued knee pain and swelling. He went to his primary doctor for swelling "on top of his knee," and he says his doctor drained some clear fluid. He noted that his condition improved for about 1 week before the swelling returned. He now has increasing pain and redness around his kneecap. Examination reveals significant swelling of his prepatellar bursa, with erythema over the bursa that extends to the surrounding skin. His temperature in the office is 101.7°F. What is the next step in treatment for this patient? Review Topic

. Initiate oral antibiotics for 7 days.
. Reaspirate the bursa and inject a corticosteroid.
. Recommend padding the patella for kneeling and ice.
. Perform an open bursectomy and start intravenous antibiotics.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Initiate oral antibiotics for 7 days.


Explanation

This patient has septic prepatellar bursitis. Padding, cold therapy, compression, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, and aspiration are thought to be acceptable treatments for aseptic prepatellar bursitis; they have little role in septic bursitis. Antibiotics along with aspiration or placement of a percutaneous drain have been associated with success in some cases of septic prepatellar bursitis, but the standard treatment is complete bursectomy with systemic antibiotics.

Question 3584

Topic: Biomechanics & Biomaterials

During total hip arthroplasty, what characteristic of irradiated (10 Mrad) and subsequently melted highly cross-linked polyethylene should provide a more wear-resistant construct than traditional gamma- irradiated (2.5-4 Mrad)-in-air polyethylene mated with the same head?

. Resistance to adhesive wear B. Resistance to abrasive wear C. Resistance to fatigue wear
. Resistance to creep

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Resistance to adhesive wear B. Resistance to abrasive wear C. Resistance to fatigue wear


Explanation

DISCUSSION:Highly cross-linked polyethylene makes material resistant to adhesive wear. Abrasive wear from third bodies  does  not  decrease  wear.  The  fatigue  strength  of  such  material  is  inferior  to  that  of  traditional polyethylene, and its resistance to creep is the same, if not lower, than that of traditional polyethylene.

Question 3585

Topic: Biomechanics & Biomaterials
In the setting of a proximal tibial plateau fracture and its repair, which of the following materials is an isotropic material?
. Proximal tibial cortical bone
. Articular cartilage of the tibial plateau
. Stainless steel tibial plate
. Medial or lateral meniscus
. Calcium phosphate cement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Stainless steel tibial plate


Explanation

DISCUSSION: An isotropic material is one that has similar mechanical properties regardless of the orientation of the material. Examples of isotropic materials include metals, plastics, and methacrylate. Most biologic tissues are anisotropic, meaning their mechanical properties alter depending on the materials’ orientation to the applied stress. REFERENCE: Einhorn TA, O’Keefe RJ, Buckwalter JA (eds): Orthopaedic Basic Science: Foundations of Clinical Practice, ed 3. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2007, pp 58-59.

Question 3586

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

What is the primary mechanism by which anabolic steroids increase muscle tissue? Review Topic

. Increased production of cortisol
. Increased production of messenger RNA
. Increased secretion of vascular endothelial factor
. Decreased production of HDL
. Attenuation of the effects of cortisol

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increased production of cortisol


Explanation

Anabolic steroids have many effects on the body. Increased muscle mass occurs specifically through increased production of messenger RNA. HDL levels usually decrease but do not affect muscle. Also, steroids act to change the effects of cortisol to decrease catabolism.

Question 3587

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

A 32-year-old professional skydiver lands awkwardly during a jump. He presents to the emergency room with bilateral knee injuries. Following successful closed reduction of both extremities, both feet are warm and pulses are present. Bedside doppler assessment is performed and the results are seen in Figure A. What would be the most appropriate next step in treatment?

. Long-leg splinting of bilateral lower extremities, monitoring of bilateral pedal pulses for 48 hours
. Intravenous dextran administration, repeat doppler evaluation at 6 hourly intervals
. Perform CT angiography for bilateral lower extremities
. Perform CT angiography for the left lower extremity, monitor right pedal pulses for 48 hours
. Surgical exploration of bilateral lower extremities

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Long-leg splinting of bilateral lower extremities, monitoring of bilateral pedal pulses for 48 hours


Explanation

The ankle-brachial index (ABI) of left and right limbs are 0.78 and 0.96 respectively. CT angiography (or conventional angiography) of the left lower extremity is indicated because of abnormal ABI <0.9. It is sufficient to observe the right lower extremity (ABI >0.9).Injury to the popliteal artery is present in 10-40% of knee dislocations (KD). ABI<0.9 has sensitivity of 87% and specificity of 97% for the diagnosis of arterial disruption. Delayed recognition of an occlusive injury (>8 hours) is likely to result in above knee amputation.Stannard et al. examined the role of selective arteriography based on serial physical examination. They found arterial injury in 7% (9 out of 134 knees), and abnormal physical findings in 10 patients, with only 1 false positive. They recommend arteriography for patients with decreased pulses, color or temperature, expanding knee hematoma, or an abnormal physical examination prior to presentation in the emergency department.Mills et al. reviewed the value of ABI for diagnosing arterial injury after knee dislocation. They found that of the 29% with ABI <0.9, all required surgery for arterial injury. Of the remaining patients with ABI >0.9, none had vascular injury. They concluded ABI >0.9 has negative predictive value of 100%.Nicandri et al. reviewed an algorithm for selective angiography. They recommend the following: (1) Intact pulses and ABI >0.9, observation for 24 hours. (2) Asymmetric pulses or ABI <0.9, arteriogram. (3) Hard signs of vascular injury (absent distal pulses, distal ischemia, active hemorrhage, expanding pulsatile hematoma), surgical exploration.Figure A is a table showing systolic pressure readings at different sites. To calculate the ABI, the highest measured arterial pressure in the ankle or foot is divided by the higher brachial arterial pressure from both upper extremities.Incorrect Answers:

Question 3588

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
In a retroperitoneal approach to the lumbar spine, what nerve is commonly found on the psoas muscle?
. Ilioinguinal
. Iliohypogastric
. Genitofemoral
. Obturator
. Femoral

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Genitofemoral


Explanation

The genitofemoral nerve and the sympathetic plexus consistently lie on the ventral surface of the psoas muscle. The ilioinguinal and iliohypogastric nerves are the most superior branches of the lumbar plexus and emerge along the upper lateral border of the psoas muscle traveling toward the quadratus lumborum. Both the obturator and femoral nerves are deep and lateral to the psoas muscle.

Question 3589

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
Type I collagen fibers in peripheral nerves are primarily responsible for which of the following?
. Conduction strength
. Tensile strength
. Conduction velocity
. Compressive strength
. Cross-linkage

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tensile strength


Explanation

Type I collagen fibers are most responsible for the tensile strength of a peripheral nerve. Type I collagen is the most abundant collagen of the human body which forms large, eosinophilic fibers known as collagen fibers. It is present in scar tissue, the end product when tissue heals by repair, as well as tendons, ligaments, the endomysium of myofibrils, the organic part of bone, the dermis, the dentin and organ capsules.

Question 3590

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

Amphotericin exerts antifungal activity by

. inhibiting DNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
. blocking folic acid synthesis.
. binding to sterols and disrupting the cell membrane.
. binding to cellular ribosomes and inhibiting protein synthesis.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. inhibiting DNA-dependent RNA polymerase.


Explanation

Antifungals such as amphotericin and nystatin bind to sterols in the cell membrane and disrupt its integrity, allowing diffusion of macromolecules and causing cell death. Sulfonamides and trimethopim mimic the metabolite substrate and block synthesis of metabolites such as folic acid. Rifampin inhibits bacterial RNA polymerase, blocking synthesis of RNA. Tetracycline, chloramphenicol, and clindamycin bind to ribosomes and block bacterial growth by inhibiting protein synthesis.

Question 3591

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
  • Demyelination diseases as multiple sclerosis and Guillain-Barre $ create neurologic symptoms by
. decreasing initiation of action potentials.
. increasing action potential amplitude.
. blocking the opening of gated sodium channels.
. decreasing the number of functional motor units.
. slowing or stopping action potential propagation through the axon.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. decreasing initiation of action potentials.


Explanation

These diseases cause demyelinated regions of the axon and thus have a higher capacitance and lower membrane resistance (opposite of normal) and thus affects an action potential’s saltatory propagation. When an action potential is propagate down a myelinated axon and reaches a demyelinated region its conduction becomes slowed or may even stop. This loss of conduction had effects on behavior.

Question 3592

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
Figure 37 shows the T2-weighted MRI scan of the hip joint. What structure is labeled A?
. Ischiofemoral ligament
. Ligamentum teres
. Obturator internus
. Piriformis
. Coccygeus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Obturator internus


Explanation

The obturator internus originates on the obturator membrane and adjacent bone, including the quadrilateral plate, and exits the lesser sciatic notch to insert on the posterior medial greater trochanter.

Question 3593

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing
Integrins function in which of the following ways?
. Maintain bone and cellular matrix
. Form bone by producing non-mineralized matrix
. Form cartilage under intermediate strain and low oxygen tension
. Attachment of osteoclasts to bone surfaces
. Binds to RANKL on the osteoblast, preventing RANK activation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Attachment of osteoclasts to bone surfaces


Explanation

Integrins are groups of molecules essential for osteoclast attachment to the bone surface. Specifically, aVß3 is a type of integrin found on osteoclasts that attaches to bone by coupling with vitronectin.

Question 3594

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
The posterior approach to the proximal radius uses what intermuscular interval?
. Extensor carpi radialis brevis and extensor digitorum communis
. Extensor carpi radialis longus and extensor digitorum communis
. Extensor digitorum communis and extensor pollicis brevis
. Brachioradialis and flexor carpi radialis
. Anconeus and extensor carpi ulnaris

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Extensor carpi radialis brevis and extensor digitorum communis


Explanation

Knowledge of intermuscular and internervous planes allows safe exposures throughout the body. The posterior (Thompson) approach to the proximal forearm uses the interval between the extensor carpi radialis brevis and extensor digitorum communis. The anterior (Henry) approach to the proximal forearm uses the interval between the brachioradialis and the flexor carpi radialis.

Question 3595

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

Regarding bone erosion in rheumatoid arthritis, which of the following statements is true?

. Interference with Wnt signalling may reduce bone erosion
. TNF and IL-6 blockade leads to slowing of bone erosion
. The extent of bone erosion is independent of the extent of synovitis
. M-CSF and RANKL stimulate bone resorption by synovial fibroblasts
. The presence of serum anti-citrullinated protein antibodies is predictive of the extent of synovitis but not bone erosion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Interference with Wnt signalling may reduce bone erosion


Explanation

TNF, IL1 and IL-6 receptor blockade helps to slow/arrest bone erosion in RA and is also effective in reducing synovitis.Cytokines TNF, IL-1 and IL-6 are key players in RA. TNF stimulates migration of osteoclast precursors from the bone marrow into the periphery, and stimulates expression of surface receptors to facilitate differentiation. In the joint, M-CSF and RANKL stimulate differentiation towards osteoclasts. Final differentiation into bone-resorbing osteoclasts is achieved following contact with the bone surface.Schett et al. reviewed bone erosions in RA. They state that the main triggers of bone erosion are synovitis, RANKL, and anti-citrullinated protein antibodies. In RA, there is an abundance of osteoclasts in bone erosions, but a paucity of mature osteoblasts, suggesting the presence of molecules that block osteoblast differentiation.Ideguchi et al. investigated whether repair of erosions occurs in patients with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) treated with conventional disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDs). They detected repair of erosions in 10.7% of RA patients treated with DMARDs. They recommend the use of DMARDs to reduce disease activity and thus reduce erosions.Illustration A shows the action of antirheumatic drugs on osteoclast differentiation and bone erosion.

Question 3596

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE
Assuming that the lesion can be covered appropriately and there is no drainage from the lesion, when should the patient be allowed to safely return to wrestling?
. When the absence of pain is reported by the wrestler for 3 consecutive days
. When 72 hours of antibiotics have been administered and there is no extension of the lesion for 48 hours
. When laboratory values are within defined limits and the patient remains afebrile for 3 days
. When the lesion has decreased in size by 50%

Correct Answer & Explanation

. When 72 hours of antibiotics have been administered and there is no extension of the lesion for 48 hours


Explanation

DISCUSSION: This patient has cellulitis, which is typically caused by group A Streptococcus or Staphylococcus. The patient’s lack of improvement with first-line antibiotics is concerning for methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infection. MRSA cellulitis is becoming more prevalent in young athletes, and a high index of suspicion is required to provide appropriate intervention during this aggressive disease process. The diagnosis is typically made clinically without the use of cultures. Oral trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (a sulfonamide-class drug) double strength twice daily for 10 to 14 days or doxycycline (a tetracycline-class drug) 100 mg twice daily for 10 to 14 days are recommended for first-line treatment of suspected MRSA cellulitis. There is no indication to proceed with irrigation and debridement; however, if the patient develops a soft-tissue abscess or the underlying joint becomes involved, this would be an appropriate intervention. Switching the athlete to an IV cephalosporin (cefazolin) is not likely to be effective against the presumed resistant bacteria. Ciprofloxacin (a fluoroquinolone-class drug) is effective against many bacteria, but not MRSA. The current recommendation for wrestlers with cellulitis is that return to competition be allowed after 72 hours of antibiotic treatment if there has been no extension of the cellulitis for 48 hours, the lesion can be covered, and there is no drainage from the lesion. The other responses are not current recommendations for return to competition.

Question 3597

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

1 to 1 micron

. 1 to 10 microns
. 10 to 100 microns
. 100 to 1000 microns

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 1 to 10 microns


Explanation

DISCUSSIONFor many years, it was believed that large particles incited the histiocytic response. It is now well established that submicron-size particles stimulate this response.

Question 3598

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing
A 78-year-old athletic woman has a history of severe back pain without antecedent trauma. She was in the emergency department 2 days ago with a T12 compression fracture. A dual x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan performed earlier this year revealed a T-score of -2.8. Her condition may be attributable to
. translocation of chromosomes X and 18.
. variant of the EXT1 gene.
. polymorphism of p53.
. polymorphism of the COL1A1 gene.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. polymorphism of the COL1A1 gene.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The diagnosis is severe osteoporosis because this patient's T-score is lower than -2.5 on DEXA scan and her fragility fracture involves the T12 vertebra. Osteoporosis may be associated with polymorphisms of the COL1A1 gene. EXT1 is associated with multiple hereditary exostoses, and translocation X:18 is associated with synovial sarcoma. The gene p53 is associated with Li-Fraumeni syndrome and osteosarcoma. RECOMMENDED READINGS: Masoodi TA, Alsaif MA, Al Shammari SA, Alhamdan AA. Evaluation and identification of damaged single nucleotide polymorphisms in COL1A1 gene involved in osteoporosis. Arch Med Sci. 2013 Oct 31;9(5):899-905. Kurt-Sirin O, Yilmaz-Aydogan H, Uyar M, Seyhan MF, Isbir T, Can A. Combined effects of collagen type I alpha1 (COL1A1) Sp1 polymorphism and osteoporosis risk factors on bone mineral density in Turkish postmenopausal women. Gene. 2014 May 1;540(2):226-31.

Question 3599

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
A 32-year-old man has a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 8 and an open pelvic fracture. The patient’s family reports that he is a Jehovah’s Witness. Initial hemodynamic instability has resolved. In the operating room during a washout, the patient’s blood pressure becomes unstable. What is the most appropriate action?
. Consult the ethics committee before giving blood.
. Use cell saver blood.
. Ask the patient’s family for consent to give blood.
. Use plasma expanders.
. Give the patient blood.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Use plasma expanders.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Certain medical procedures involving blood are specifically prohibited in the belief system of a Jehovah’s Witness whereas others are not doctrinally prohibited. For procedures where there is no specific doctrinal prohibition, a Jehovah’s Witness should obtain the details from medical personnel and make his or her own decision. Transfusions of allogeneic whole blood or its constituents or preoperative donated autologous blood are prohibited. Other procedures, while not doctrinally prohibited, are not promoted such as hemodilution, intraoperative cell salvage, use of a heart-lung machine, dialysis, epidural blood patch, plasmapheresis, white blood cell scans (labeling or tagging of removed blood returned to the patient), platelet gel, erythropoietin, or blood substitutes. The patient should not be given blood. Plasma expanders should be used first to restore hemodynamic stability. Cell saver blood from an open wound is not recommended nor would there likely be enough from an open tibial fracture to salvage. The patient’s family may be expressing their own beliefs rather than the patient’s beliefs and it would be better to ask the patient when he or she is more alert to determine what procedures they would allow. A consult with the ethics committee will unnecessarily delay an intervention that should restore hemodynamic stability. REFERENCES: Jimenez R, Lewis VO (eds): Culturally Competent Care Guidebook. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2007. Jehovah’s Witnesses Official Web Site: Medical Care and Blood, 2008, http://www.watchtower.org/e/medical_care_and_blood.htm

Question 3600

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
The image depicts the radiograph obtained from a patient who has leg-length inequality and chronic, activity-related buttock discomfort. This problem has been lifelong, but it is getting worse and increasingly causing pain. What is the best current technique for total hip arthroplasty?
. High hip center
. Anatomic hip center with trochanteric osteotomy and progressive femoral shortening
. Anatomic hip center with subtrochanteric shortening osteotomy
. Iliofemoral lengthening followed by an anatomic hip center

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anatomic hip center with subtrochanteric shortening osteotomy


Explanation

DISCUSSION: A high hip center is not recommended for Crowe type IV hips because of the lack of acetabular bone and altered hip biomechanics. An anatomic center is a better option but necessitates a technique to address the tight soft-tissue envelope. A trochanteric osteotomy with progressive femoral shortening has been described but can be prone to trochanter nonunion. Iliofemoral lengthening prior to surgery has been described but may not be tolerated by all patients. A shortening subtrochanteric osteotomy avoids trochanter nonunion and allows adjustment of femoral anteversion. Fixation of the osteotomy can include a stem with distal rotational control, plate fixation, a step versus oblique cut, or strut grafts.