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Question 261

Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation



An Ilizarov pelvic support osteotomy is planned for a patient with a chronically dislocated, painful hip. To successfully eliminate Trendelenburg gait and restore mechanical alignment, which combination of femoral osteotomies is required?

. Proximal femoral varus osteotomy and distal femoral valgus osteotomy
. Proximal femoral valgus-extension osteotomy and distal femoral varus osteotomy
. Proximal femoral flexion osteotomy and distal femoral extension osteotomy
. Isolated proximal femoral valgus osteotomy
. Proximal femoral valgus osteotomy and distal femoral internal rotation osteotomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Proximal femoral valgus-extension osteotomy and distal femoral varus osteotomy


Explanation

The pelvic support osteotomy requires a proximal valgus-extension osteotomy to eliminate the Trendelenburg gait and support the pelvis. A secondary distal femoral varus osteotomy is required to realign the mechanical axis of the lower extremity parallel to the contralateral limb.

Question 262

Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation

In a pelvic support osteotomy (Ilizarov hip reconstruction) for a chronically dislocated hip, what is the primary biomechanical purpose of the distal femoral osteotomy?

. To correct leg length discrepancy by pure lengthening.
. To realign the mechanical axis parallel to the anatomic axis.
. To correct the secondary mechanical axis deviation created by the proximal valgus osteotomy.
. To induce spontaneous hip reduction via soft tissue tensioning.
. To increase femoral anteversion for better abductor mechanics.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. To correct the secondary mechanical axis deviation created by the proximal valgus osteotomy.


Explanation

The proximal osteotomy in a pelvic support procedure is performed in valgus and extension to eliminate Trendelenburg gait and support the pelvis. This creates a secondary mechanical axis deviation that must be corrected by a distal femoral osteotomy to re-center the mechanical axis over the knee.

Question 263

Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation

A patient with a chronically dislocated hip and severe Trendelenburg gait is scheduled for a pelvic support osteotomy (Ilizarov). This procedure involves two distinct osteotomies. What is the primary biomechanical goal of the proximal osteotomy in this specific technique?

. To equalize limb length by acute distraction
. To extend and highly abduct the proximal femur, locking it against the pelvis to eliminate the Trendelenburg lurch
. To strictly medialise the mechanical axis of the lower extremity
. To create a severe varus deformity that compensates for femoral shortening
. To articulate a new false joint at the level of the greater trochanter

Correct Answer & Explanation

. To extend and highly abduct the proximal femur, locking it against the pelvis to eliminate the Trendelenburg lurch


Explanation

The proximal osteotomy in a pelvic support osteotomy extends and abducts the femur. This functionally locks the proximal fragment against the ischium/pelvis during weight-bearing, restoring abductor tension and eliminating the Trendelenburg gait.

Question 264

Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation

A 35-year-old woman with an untreated Chiari I malformation and large cervical syringomyelia presents with rapid, painless swelling of her right shoulder, accompanied by a 'crunching' sensation during movement. Radiographs reveal severe destruction of the humeral head and glenoid with loose osseous debris. What is the underlying pathophysiology of this joint destruction?

. Hematogenous seeding of Staphylococcus aureus
. Loss of proprioception and deep pain sensation
. Synovial chondromatosis transforming into chondrosarcoma
. Ischemic avascular necrosis of the humeral head
. Autoimmune inflammatory arthropathy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Loss of proprioception and deep pain sensation


Explanation

The patient has developed neuropathic (Charcot) arthropathy of the shoulder, a classic complication of syringomyelia. The loss of protective sensation and proprioception leads to repeated microtrauma and subsequent rapid joint destruction.

Question 265

Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation

Which physical examination finding is classically associated with the expanding central cord lesion seen in advanced syringomyelia?

. Loss of proprioception in the lower extremities
. Dissociated sensory loss in the upper extremities
. Flaccid paralysis of the lower extremities
. Intact deep tendon reflexes in the presence of upper extremity atrophy
. Bilateral pupil constriction (Horner syndrome)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Dissociated sensory loss in the upper extremities


Explanation

Syringomyelia causes an expanding central syrinx that primarily affects the crossing spinothalamic tracts. This results in "dissociated sensory loss," where pain and temperature sensation are lost (often in a cape-like distribution) but light touch and proprioception (dorsal columns) remain intact.

Question 266

Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation

A 28-year-old male with a known cervical syrinx presents with painless burns on his hands. He has normal light touch and proprioception bilaterally. The pathophysiology of his isolated sensory deficit is due to compression of which specific spinal cord structure?

. Fasciculus cuneatus
. Lateral corticospinal tract
. Dorsal spinocerebellar tract
. Anterior white commissure
. Anterior horn cells

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior white commissure


Explanation

A centrally expanding syrinx initially compresses the anterior white commissure, where the second-order neurons of the lateral spinothalamic tracts decussate. This selective damage results in a bilateral loss of pain and temperature sensation while preserving the dorsal columns (light touch/proprioception).

Question 267

Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation

Which of the following sensory modalities is most reliably assessed by the 5.07 Semmes-Weinstein monofilament in a patient with diabetes mellitus?

. Proprioception
. Vibratory sensation
. Protective sensation
. Sharp two-point discrimination
. Hot and cold sensation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Protective sensation


Explanation

Correct Answer: Protective sensationThe 5.07 Semmes-Weinstein monofilament is specifically used to assess protective sensation. While vibratory sensation, sharp two-point discrimination, and temperature sensation can also be affected by diabetic neuropathy, the 5.07 monofilament is the most reliable and widely accepted screening tool for protective sensation.

Question 268

Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation

A 65-year-old male with diabetes mellitus presents for evaluation. He reports that he recently stepped on a nail but did not feel it until he saw blood on his sock. Which of the following sensory modalities is most likely deficient in this patient, and what is the most appropriate screening tool to document this deficit?

. Proprioception; tuning fork
. Protective sensation; 5.07 Semmes-Weinstein monofilament
. Two-point discrimination; calibrated caliper
. Vibratory sensation; 128-Hz tuning fork
. Thermal sensation; hot/cold test tubes

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Protective sensation; 5.07 Semmes-Weinstein monofilament


Explanation

Correct Answer: BThe patient's inability to feel a nail puncture indicates a loss of protective sensation. The most reliable and standard screening tool to document this deficit in a clinical setting is the 5.07 Semmes-Weinstein monofilament.

Question 269

Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation

A 58-year-old male with a 15-year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus presents for a routine clinic visit. The physician uses a 5.07 Semmes-Weinstein monofilament on the plantar aspect of the foot. What specific sensory modality is being evaluated?

. Proprioception
. Vibratory sense
. Protective sensation
. Two-point discrimination
. Temperature sensation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Protective sensation


Explanation

Correct Answer: Protective sensationThe 5.07 Semmes-Weinstein monofilament is the most reliable screening tool for the presence of protective sensation. Loss of protective sensation places the patient at high risk for neuropathic ulcerations.

Question 270

Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation

The Semmes-Weinstein 10g monofilament evaluates sensory pathways carried primarily by which anatomical tract in the spinal cord?

. Lateral spinothalamic tract
. Anterior spinothalamic tract
. Dorsal column-medial lemniscus pathway
. Corticospinal tract
. Spinocerebellar tract

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Dorsal column-medial lemniscus pathway


Explanation

The 10g monofilament tests fine touch and proprioception mediated by large A-beta nerve fibers. These sensory modalities are transmitted centrally via the dorsal column-medial lemniscus pathway.

Question 271

Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation

Which of the following conditions is most likely to result in a 'Charcot joint' (neuroarthropathy)?

. Osteoarthritis
. Rheumatoid arthritis
. Diabetes mellitus
. Systemic lupus erythematosus
. Gout

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Diabetes mellitus


Explanation

Diabetes mellitus is the most common cause of neuroarthropathy (Charcot joint) in industrialized countries. Prolonged high blood glucose can lead to peripheral neuropathy, resulting in loss of protective sensation, proprioception, and autonomic dysfunction, which ultimately leads to repetitive microtrauma, bone resorption, and severe joint destruction. Syphilis (tabes dorsalis) and syringomyelia are other historical causes.

Question 272

Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation

What is the primary function of the medial meniscus in the knee joint?

. Prevention of anterior tibial translation
. Stabilization against valgus stress
. Shock absorption and load distribution
. Enhancement of external tibial rotation
. Protection of the patellar tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Shock absorption and load distribution


Explanation

Both the medial and lateral menisci primarily function in shock absorption, load distribution across the tibiofemoral joint, and joint stability. They also play a role in proprioception. While the menisci contribute to overall joint stability, the primary restraints against anterior tibial translation are the ACL, and against valgus stress are the MCL. Menisci do not enhance rotation or protect the patellar tendon.

Question 273

Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation
The cellular response to hypoxia is crucial in various orthopedic conditions, from fracture healing to avascular necrosis. Hypoxia-inducible factor-1 alpha (HIF-1α) is a master regulator of the cellular response to low oxygen. Under hypoxic conditions, HIF-1α:
. Is rapidly degraded by proteasomes, preventing gene transcription.
. Is hydroxylated, marking it for ubiquitination and degradation.
. Stabilizes and translocates to the nucleus to induce target gene expression.
. Inhibits the transcription of genes involved in angiogenesis and glycolysis.
. Promotes the formation of reactive oxygen species, leading to cell damage.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Stabilizes and translocates to the nucleus to induce target gene expression.


Explanation

Under normoxic conditions, HIF-1α is rapidly hydroxylated by prolyl hydroxylase enzymes, leading to its ubiquitination and proteasomal degradation. However, under hypoxic conditions, these hydroxylases are inhibited due to the lack of oxygen. This prevents HIF-1α degradation, allowing it to stabilize, accumulate, and translocate to the nucleus. In the nucleus, HIF-1α heterodimerizes with HIF-1β and binds to hypoxia-responsive elements (HREs) in the promoters of target genes. This induces the transcription of genes involved in adapting to low oxygen, such as those promoting angiogenesis (e.g., VEGF), glycolysis, and erythropoiesis. Option C is correct. Option A and B describe its fate under normoxia. Option D is incorrect; it induces, not inhibits, these genes. Option E is a consequence of severe hypoxia, but not HIF-1α's direct regulatory role.

Question 274

Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation
A 40-year-old male is stabbed in the back, resulting in a spinal cord hemisection (Brown-Séquard syndrome) at the T8 level on the right side. Assuming a pure hemisection, which of the following physical examination findings will be distinctly present in the right lower extremity?
. Loss of pain and temperature sensation
. Loss of proprioception and vibration sensation
. Flaccid paralysis with absent reflexes
. Normal motor function with profound hyperalgesia
. Loss of all sensory modalities

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Loss of proprioception and vibration sensation


Explanation

Brown-Séquard syndrome is characterized by a spinal cord hemisection. The dorsal columns (proprioception, vibration, light touch) cross in the medulla, so a lesion causes ipsilateral loss. The corticospinal tract (motor) crosses in the lower medulla, causing ipsilateral spastic paralysis below the lesion (not flaccid). The spinothalamic tract (pain, temperature) crosses in the spinal cord within 1-2 levels of entry, leading to contralateral loss of pain and temperature.

Question 275

Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation

A 30-year-old male presents with severe chest wall bruising, loss of the anterior axillary fold, and weakness in internal rotation and adduction after feeling a "pop" while performing a heavy bench press.

During surgical repair of the ruptured pectoralis major tendon, the surgeon isolates the torn sternocostal head. Relative to the clavicular head footprint on the humerus, where is the anatomic footprint of the sternocostal head located?

. Superficial and distal
. Deep and proximal
. Directly medial on the lesser tuberosity
. Superficial and medial
. Deep and distal

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Deep and proximal


Explanation

The pectoralis major tendon undergoes a 180-degree twist as it inserts onto the lateral lip of the bicipital groove of the humerus. Due to this twist, the sternocostal head (which originates inferiorly on the chest) crosses deep to the clavicular head and inserts deep and proximal (superior) on the humerus. Pectoralis major ruptures most commonly occur at the sternocostal head insertion during maximal eccentric contraction (e.g., bench pressing).

Question 276

Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation

During the normal gait cycle, which muscle group undergoes a critical eccentric contraction immediately following initial contact (heel strike) to prevent a 'foot slap'?

. Triceps surae
. Quadriceps femoris
. Tibialis anterior
. Hamstrings
. Gluteus maximus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tibialis anterior


Explanation

From initial contact (heel strike) to the loading response (foot flat), the ankle goes from a neutral position into plantarflexion. The tibialis anterior and other ankle dorsiflexors must contract eccentrically to control this descent and absorb shock. Weakness of the tibialis anterior results in a rapid uncontrolled drop of the forefoot known as 'foot slap'.

Question 277

Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation

When prescribing a prosthesis for a patient with a transtibial amputation, a Solid Ankle Cushion Heel (SACH) foot is often selected. What is the primary function of the compressible heel wedge in this prosthetic foot during the gait cycle?

. Simulate active plantarflexion during push-off
. Provide medial-lateral stability during swing phase
. Simulate eccentric tibialis anterior contraction at heel strike
. Prevent knee buckling during mid-stance
. Provide energy return during terminal stance

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Simulate eccentric tibialis anterior contraction at heel strike


Explanation

In a SACH foot, the compressible heel wedge absorbs the impact of heel strike and compresses, allowing the foot to transition smoothly into foot flat. This mechanism effectively simulates the eccentric contraction of the tibialis anterior muscle during the loading response of a normal gait cycle.

Question 278

Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation

During normal human gait, the center of mass reaches its highest vertical displacement at which phase of the gait cycle?

. Heel strike
. Mid-stance
. Toe-off
. Mid-swing
. Deceleration

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Mid-stance


Explanation

During the gait cycle, the body's center of mass undergoes a sinusoidal vertical displacement. It reaches its highest point during mid-stance (when the body passes directly over the supporting limb) and its lowest point during double limb support (which occurs around heel strike of the leading limb and toe-off of the trailing limb).

Question 279

Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation

Understanding the normal human gait cycle is critical for diagnosing pathological gait patterns. During the normal stance phase of walking on level ground, maximum ankle dorsiflexion occurs precisely during which sub-phase?

. Initial contact
. Mid-stance
. Terminal stance
. Pre-swing
. Initial swing

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Terminal stance


Explanation

Maximum ankle dorsiflexion (approximately 10 to 15 degrees) occurs at the very end of terminal stance. During this phase, the heel of the stance foot begins to rise, and the tibia translates forward over the fixed foot. Immediately after terminal stance begins pre-swing, during which the ankle rapidly plantarflexes for toe-off.

Question 280

Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation

During the stance phase of a normal gait cycle, the hip abductors fire to stabilize the pelvis and prevent a Trendelenburg drop. In which specific phase of the gait cycle does maximal contraction of the gluteus medius occur?

. Initial contact (Heel strike)
. Mid-stance
. Terminal stance
. Pre-swing
. Mid-swing

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Mid-stance


Explanation

The gluteus medius fires to stabilize the pelvis during the single-leg support phase of gait. Maximal contraction of the gluteus medius occurs during mid-stance, which corresponds to the time when the contralateral leg is in the swing phase, requiring maximum abductor moment to keep the pelvis level.